Cisco CCNA 200-125 Exam Dumps Latest – New Questions & Answers

Section I: Network Fundamentals

I.1. In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.)

• fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B*
• fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
• fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
• fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B*
• fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B

I.2. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

• It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
• The connection is established before data is transmitted.*
• It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.*
• It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
• It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
• It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.*

I.3. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the Ethernet terms from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.4. Refer to the exhibit

All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

• Link A ­ 172.16.3.0/30*
• Link A ­ 172.16.3.112/30
• Network A ­ 172.16.3.48/26
• Network A ­ 172.16.3.128/25*
• Link A ­ 172.16.3.40/30
• Network A ­ 172.16.3.192/26

I.5. Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing?

• Layer 2 bridge
• Layer 2 switch
• Layer 3 switch*
• router

I.6. What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)

• They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
• They are less costly than public IP addresses.*
• They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.*
• They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
• They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.

I.7. Which two server types are used to support DNS lookup? (Choose two.)

• web server
• ESX host
• authoritative name server*
• file transfer server
• name resolver*

I.8. Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)

• FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.
• FC00::/7 is used in private networks.*
• FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.
• FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.*
• 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
• FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.*

I.9. Refer to the exhibit

The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?

• Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1*
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
• Switch1(config)# line con0Switch1(config-line)# password ciscoSwitch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# duplex fullSwitch1(confiq-if)# speed 100

I.10. Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)

• Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.*
• OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.*
• EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
• Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
• EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

I.11. What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

• Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.*
• Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
• The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
• A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

I.12. DRAG DROP. Refer to the exhibit.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.13. Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)

• They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs.*
• They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security.
• They are best suited to smaller wireless networks.
• They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS.
• They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level.*

I.14. Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?

• bootstrap*
• POST
• mini-IOS
• ROMMON mode

I.15. Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?

• FHRP*
• DHCP
• RSMLT
• ESRP

I.16. Refer to exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?

R1(config)#interface gigabitEthernet0/1 
R1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1. 255.255.255.0 
R1(config-if)#speed 100 
R1(config-if)#duplex full

• router#show ip protocols
• router#show startup-config
• router#show line
• router#show interface gig 0/1*

I.17. Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and replies?

• ping*
• traceroute
• ssh
• telnet

I.18. If computer A is sending traffic to computer B, which option is the source IP address when a packet leaves R1 on interface F0/1?

• IP address of the R2 interface F0/1
• Ip address of computer B
• Ip address of R1 interface F0/1
• Ip address of Computer A*

I.19. Which functionality does split horizon provide?

• It prevents switching loops in distance-vector protocols.
• It prevents switching loops in link-state protocols.
• It prevents routing loops in distance-vector protocols.*
• It prevents routing loops in link-state protocols.

I.20. Which MAC protocol sets a random timer to reattempt communication ?

• RARP
• CSMA/CA
• CSMA/CD*
• IEEE 802.1x

I.21. How many host addresses are available on the network 192.168.1.0 subnet 255.255.255 240?

• 6
• 8
• 14*
• 16

I.22. Which two statements about unique local IPv6 addresses are true?

• They are identical to IPv4 private addresses.*
• They are defined by RFC 1884
• They use the prefix FEC0::/10
• They use the prefix FC00::/7*
• They can be routed on the IPv6 global internet.

I.23. If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into a different port, how many collision domains are on the switch?

• 2*
• 4
• 5
• 6

I.24. DRAG DROP. Drag the cable type on the left to the purpose for which is the best suited on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.25. DRAG DROP. Drag the IPv6 multicast address type on the left to their purpose on the right..

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.26. How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing table?

• it broadcast the packet to each interface on the router
• it discards the packet*
• it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router
• it routes the packet to the default route

I.27. Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true?(choose two)

• Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2
• Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3*
• Ethernet 10BASE-T dose not support full-duplex.
• When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD ,it terminates transmission as soon as collision occurs*
• When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CA ,it terminates transmission as soon as collision occurs

I.28. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

• ipv6 local
• ipv6 host
• ipv6 unicast-routing*
• ipv6 neighbor

I.29. Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

• 192.168.14.4*
• 192.168.12.2
• 192.168.13.3
• 192.168.15.5

I.30. What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?

• global unicast
• anycast*
• multicast
• unspecified address

I.31. When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it handle the packet?

• It discards the packet*
• It sends the packet over the route with the best metric
• It sends the packet to the next hop address
• It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort

I.32. If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learns about the same destination network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?

• It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors
• It sends a withdrawal signal to the neighboring router
• It disables the routing protocol
• It prefers the static route*

I.33. Which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 subnet 255.255.255.252?

• /29
• /30*
• /31
• /32

I.34. Which six-byte field in a basic Ethernet frame must be an individual address?

• SOF
• FCS
• DA
• SA*

I.35. If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?

• 1
• 2
• 4*
• 8

I.36. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

• 10.0.0.0 /21
• 10.0.0.0 /22*
• 10.0.0.0 /23
• 10.0.0.0 /24

I.37. What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?

• Tos Field*
• DSCP
• IP Precedence
• Cos
• -ANOTHER OPTION-

I.38. What feature uses a random time to re-send a frame?

• CSMA/CA
• -ANOTHER OPTION-
• -ANOTHER OPTION-
• CSMA/CD*

I.39. Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?

• IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
• The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.*
• The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
• Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.

I.40. If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?

• 5
• 2*
• 3
• 4

I.41. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

• an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network.*
• an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host.
• a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site*
• a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP*
• a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator

I.42. You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

• 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
• 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248*
• 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
• 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
• 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

I.43. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the IPv6 IP addresses from the left onto the correct IPv6 address types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.44. What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?

• 172.16.1.0/26*
• 172.16.1.0/25
• 172.16.1.0/24
• the default route

I.45. Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

• transport
• network
• presentation
• session
• application*

I.46. What are the address that will show at the show ip route if we configure the above statements? (Choose Three.)

• 10.0.0.0*
• 10.4.3.0
• 172.15.4.0
• 172.15.0.0*
• 192.168.4.0*
• 192.168.0.0

I.47. Which feature facilitates the tagging of frames on a specific VLAN?

• Routing
• Hairpinning
• Encapsulation*
• Switching

I.48. What does split horizon prevent?

• routing loops, link state
• routing loops, distance vector*
• switching loops, STP
• switching loops, VTP

I.49. Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?

• unicast
• multicast
• anycast*
• broadcast

I.50. What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?

• 00000000
• 11111100*
• 11111111
• 11111101

I.51. Describe the best way to troubleshoot and isolate a network problem?

• Create an action plan
• Implement an action plan
• Gather facts*
• others

I.52. In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?

• the QoS byte
• the CoS byte
• the ToS byte*
• the DSCP byte

I.53. What are two benefits of Private IPv4 Addresses? (Choose two.)

• they can be implemented without requiring admin to coordinate with IANA*
• they are managed by IANA
• increase the flexibility of network design
• provide network isloation from the internet*
• they are routable over internet

I.54. How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address?

• 32
• 48
• 64*
• 128

I.55. What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model’s INTERNET layer?

• Application
• Session
• Data Link
• Presentation
• Network*

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

The Internet Layer in TCP/IP Model is equivalent to the Network Layer of the OSI Model.

I.56. Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

• IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration*
• DHCP
• NHRP
• IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration*
• ISATAP tunneling

I.57. How many usable host are there per subnet if you have the address of 192.168.10.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?

• 4
• 8
• 16
• 14*

I.58. Which type of cable must you use to connect two devices with MDI interfaces?

• rolled
• crossover**
• crossed
• straight through

I.59. Which type of IPv6 address also exists in IPv4 but is barely used?

• unicast
• multicast
• anycast**
• broadcast

I.60. At which layer of the OSI model dose PPP perform?

• Layer 2*
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 1

I.61. Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?

• Scan Timer.
• TTD.
• Flow Label.
• Hop Limit.*
• Hop Count.

I.62. Which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?

• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128*

I.63. Which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 subnet 255.255.255.252?

• 30*
• 31
• 32
• 33

I.64. Which two functions can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.)

• assigning IP addresses to local clients
• copying updated IOS images to Cisco switches
• resolving names locally*
• forwarding name resolution requests to an external DNS server*
• transferring split horizon traffic between zones

I.65. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.*
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.*
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.*

I.66. Which two tasks does a router perform when it receives a packet that is being forwarded from one network to another? (Choose two.)

• It removes the Layer 2 frame header and trailer*
• It encapsulates the Layer 2 packet
• It removes the Layer 3 frame header and trailer
• It examines the routing table for the best path to the destination IP address of the packet*
• It examines the MAC address table for the forwarding interface

I.67. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that is uses on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.68. Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three)

• Session*
• transport
• presentation*
• application*
• data-link
• network

I.69. When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?

• When you lack the proper to resolve the issue*
• When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected
• When you have gathered all information about an issue
• When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min

I.70. Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?

• Class C
• Class B*
• Class D
• Class A

I.71. Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?

• RFC 4193
• RFC 1519
• RFC 1518 *
• RFC 1918

I.72. Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?

• bus
• star*
• mesh
• ring

I.73. Which statement about a router on a stick is true?

• Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches.
• It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same subnet
• It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.
• It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.*

I.74. Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?

• administrative distance*
• next hop
• metric
• routing protocol code

I.75. Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two)

• to enable intra-enterprise communication*
• to implement NAT
• to connect applications
• to conserve global address space*
• to manage routing overhead

I.76. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)

• 172.16.9.0*
• 172.16.8.0
• 172.16.31.0*
• 172.16.20.0*

I.77. Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?

• ICANN
• APNIC
• RIR
• ISPs*

I.78. Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the standard for computer networking?

• System network architecture
• Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol*
• Open system Interconnect
• Open network architecture

I.79. Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.) 

• Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
• Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
• Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.*
• Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
• Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
• Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.*

I.80. Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true ?

• They must be configured on all IPv6 interface*
• They must be globally unique
• They must be manually configured
• They are advertised globally on the network

I.81. Which header field is new on IPv6?

• Version
• Hop Limit
• Flow Label*
• Traffic Class

I.82. Which two statements about access points are true? (Choose Two)

• They can provide access within enterprises and to the public.
• in Most cases, they are physically connected to other network devices to provide network connectivity*
• They can protect a network from internal and external threats.
• Most access points provide Wi-Fi and Bluetooth connectivity.*
• They must be hardwired to a modem.

I.83. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

• Global addresses start with 2000::/3.*
• Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
• Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
• There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.*
• If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

I.84. Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079::/64 are true? (Choose two)

• The subnet ID is 14920bf83d
• The subnet ID is 4079*
• The global ID is 14920bf83d
• The address is a link-local address
• The global ID is 4079
• The address is a unique local address*

I.85. Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an IPv6 address?

• Teredo
• 6to4*
• 4to6
• GRE
• ISATAP

I.86. Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

• There are two broadcast domains in the network.*
• There are four broadcast domains in the network.
• There are six broadcast domains in the network.
• There are four collision domains in the network.
• There are five collision domains in the network.
• There are seven collision domains in the network.*

I.87. Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment?

• CLNS
• TCPv6
• NHRP
• NDP *
• ARP

• /127*
• /128
• /64
• /48
• /32

I.89. What are three features of the IPV6 protocol?(choose three)

• complicated header
• plug-and-play*
• no broadcasts*
• checksums
• optional IPsec
• autoconfiguration**

I.90. Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

• application
• internet*
• network
• transport

I.91. Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?

• FC00::/7
• FC00::/8
• FE80::/10*
• FF00::/8

I.92. For which two reasons was RFC 1918 address space define (Choose two)

• to preserve public IPv4 address space*
• to reduce the occurrence of overlapping IP addresses*
• to preserve public IPv6 address space
• reduce the size of ISP routing tables
• to support the NAT protocol

I.93. In which two circumstances are private IPv4 addresses appropriate? (Choose two)

• on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources
• on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts*
• on the public-facing interface of a firewall
• on hosts that require minimal access to external resources*
• to allow hosts inside an enterprise to communicate in both directions with hosts  outside the enterprise

I.94. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the IEEE standard cable names from the left onto the correct cable types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.95. Which major IPv6 address type is supported in IPv4 but rarely used?

• Broadcast
• Anycast*
• Unicast
• Multicast

I.96. Refer to the exhibit, you determine that Computer A cannot ping Computer. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?

• The Subnet mask for Computer A is incorrect.*
• The default gateway address for Computer A is incorrect.
• The subnet mask for computer B is incorrect.
• The default gateway address for computer B is incorrect.

I.97. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

• 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
• 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
• FEC0:2927:1860:W067::2A4
• 2004:1:25A4:886F::1*

I.98. Refer to the exhibit. A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?

• 192.168.1.56/27
• 192.168.1.64/26*
• 192.168.1.64/27
• 192.168.1.56/26

I.99. DRAG DROP. A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based on the layered approach to troubleshooting and beginning with the lowest layer, drag each procedure on the left to its proper category on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.100. Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses?

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0*
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.248.0

I.101. Which two are features of IPv6?(choose two)

• multicast*
• broadcast
• allcast
• podcast
• anycast*

I.102. Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?

• 172.16.16.0*
• 172.16.0.0
• 172.16.24.0
• 172.16.28.0

I.103. Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

• ::1*
• ::
• 2000::/3
• 0::/10

I.104. You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?

• 10.188.31.0/26
• 10.188.31.0/25
• 10.188.31.0/25
• 10.188.31.0/27*
• 10.188.31.0/29

I.105. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

• application*
• presentation
• session
• transport
• internet
• data link

I.106. A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

• session
• transport
• network
• data link*
• physical

I.107. Which two statements correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

• The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.*
• The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
• Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
• Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.*
• The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

I.108. Refer to the graphic. Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

• the MAC address of router interface e0*
• the MAC address of router interface e1
• the MAC address of the server network interface
• the MAC address of host A

I.109. Refer to exhibit: Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

• the IP address of Switch 1
• the MAC address of Switch 1
• the IP address of Host C*
• the MAC address of Host C
• the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
• the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface*

I.110. At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

• physical
• data link*
• network
• transport

I.111. What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?

• source MAC address
• source IP address
• source switch port
• destination IP address
• destination port address
• destination MAC address*

I.112. Based on the network shown in the graphic. Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?

• routing loops, hold down timers
• switching loops, split horizon
• routing loops, split horizon
• switching loops, VTP
• routing loops, STP
• switching loops, STP*

I.113. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator’s attempt to telnet to the switch from host fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

• The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.
• Host and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
• The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.*
• The switch interface connected to the router is down.
• Host needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.

I.114. What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

• B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72
• B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72
• B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72
• B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72*

I.115. Refer to the diagram. All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)

• The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192
• The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128*
• The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1*
• The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
• The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
• The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.*

I.116. The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)

• no broadcast*
• change of source address in the IPv6 header
• change of destination address in the IPv6 header
• Telnet access does not require a password
• autoconfiguration*
• NAT

I.117. An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?

Correct Answer: C

I.118. Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?

• 0.0.0.240
• 255.255.255.252
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.224*
• 255.255.255.240

I.119. How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

• 24
• 4
• 8
• 16*

I.120. What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)

• enable dual-stack routing*
• configure IPv6 directly
• configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands*
• use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets*
• statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
• use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

I.121. Refer to the exhibit. In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?

• 172.16.0.0 /16*
• 172.16.0.0 /20
• 172.16.0.0 /24
• 172.32.0.0 /16
• 172.32.0.0 /17
• 172.64.0.0 /16

I.122. How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?

• by appending 0xFF to the MAC address
• by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE
• by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it
• by inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address*
• by prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes

I.123. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

• 172.1.0.0/24
• 172.1.2.0/21
• 172.1.4.0/22*
• 
• 

I.124. Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)

• one-to-many communication model
• one-to-nearest communication model
• any-to-many communication model
• a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
• the same address for multiple devices in the group*
• delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device*

I.125. A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128*
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192*
• 255.255.248.0

I.126. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is adding two new hosts to Switch A . Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

• host A IP address: 192.168.1.79*
• host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
• host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78*
• host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
• host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
• host B IP address: 192.168.1.190*

I.127. Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?

• FF02::1
• FF02::2*
• FF02::3
• FF02::4

I.128. Refer to the exhibit. Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?

• 172.16.0.0./21
• 172.16.0.0./20*
• 172.16.0.0./16
• 172.16.0.0/18

I.129. Which IPv6 address is valid?

• 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
• 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
• 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
• 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B*

I.130. Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?

• ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
• ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64*
• ipv6 address PREFIX_1 ::1/64
• ipv6 autoconfig

I.131. Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?

• FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69*
• FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
• FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
• FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69

I.132. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?

• The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
• The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
• The maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
• The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
• The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.*
• The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

I.133. On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?

• a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch*
• a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
• a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
• a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

I.134. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server. Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?

• The network has not fully converged.
• IP routing is not enabled.
• A static route is configured incorrectly.*
• The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.
• The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
• The routing table on Coffee has not updated.

I.135. Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

• Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.*
• Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
• Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
• Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.*
• Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
• Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

I.136. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about  this design?

• The design will function as intended
• Spanning-tree will need to be used
• The router will not accept the addressing scheme*
• The connection between switches should be a trunk.
• The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

I.137. In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?

• during high traffic periods
• after broken links are re-established
• when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
• in an improperly implemented redundant topology*
• when a dual ring topology is in use

I.138. The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)

• Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1
• Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254*
• Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2
• Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2*
• Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224
• Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240

I.139. Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?

• Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
• Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
• The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
• For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.*

I.140. Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what is the cause of this problem?

• HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
• The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
• The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
• The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.*
• The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.

I.141. Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

• Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
• Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.*
• Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
• Ensure the switch has power.*
• Reboot all of the devices.
• Reseat all cables.*

I.142. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is the problem?

• The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.
• TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1
• The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.*
• The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.
• Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown.
• The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

I.143. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)

• The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
• Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
• Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
• The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
• Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.*
• The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA*

I.144. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?

• data link layer
• application layer
• access layer
• session layer
• network layer*

I.145. Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

• Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.*
• Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
• Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.*
• Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
• Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
• Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.*

I.146. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

• 252
• 253*
• 254
• 255

I.147. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.*
• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.*
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.*
• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

I.148. The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?

• 10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
• 10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
• 10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
• 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252*
• 10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

I.149. Which of the following IP addresses fall into the CIDR block of 115.64.4.0/22? (Choose three.)

• 115.64.8.32
• 115.64.7.64*
• 115.64.6.255*
• 115.64.3.255
• 115.64.5.128*
• 115.64.12.128

I.150. Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)

• buffering*
• cut-through
• windowing*
• congestion avoidance*
• load balancing

I.151. Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to connect to an access point that has SSID broadcasting disabled?

• Set the SSID value in the client software to public.
• Configure open authentication on the AP and the client.
• Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP.*
• Configured MAC address filtering to permit the client to connect to the AP.

I.152. What is one reason that WPA encryption is preferred over WEP?

• A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key.
• The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values.
• WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed.
• The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.*

I.153. As a CCNA candidate, you must have a firm understanding of the IPv6 address structure. Refer to IPv6 address, could you tell me how many bits are included in each filed?

• 24
• 4
• 3
• 16*

I.154. While troubleshooting a connectivity issue from a PC you obtain the following information:

What is the underlying cause of this problem?

• A remote physical layer problem exists.
• The host NIC is not functioning.
• TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.
• A local physical layer problem exists.*

I.155. Which name describes an IPV6 host-enable tunneling technique that uses IPV4 UDP,does not require dedicated gateway tunnels,and can pass through existing IPV4 NAT gateways?

• dual stack
• dynamic
• Teredo*
• Manual 6to4

I.156. What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two.)

• decreasing the number of collision domains
• filtering frames based on MAC addresses*
• allowing simultaneous frame transmissions*
• increasing the size of broadcast domains
• increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

I.157. What are two security appliances that can be installed in a network? (Choose two.)

• ATM
• IDS*
• IOS
• IOX
• IPS*
• SDM

I.158. A network administrator is planning a network installation for a large organization. The design requires 100 separate subnetworks, so the company has acquired a Class B network address. What subnet mask will provide the 100 subnetworks required, if 500 usable host addresses are required per subnet?

• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0*
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192

I.159. Which of the following services use UDP? (Choose three.)

• Telnet
• TFTP*
• SNMP*
• DNS*
• SMTP
• HTTP

I.160. Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by a smaller number of public IP addresses?

• NAT*
• NTP
• RFC 1631
• RFC 1918

I.161. What are three broadband wireless technologies? (Choose three)

• WiMax*
• satellite Internet*
• municipal Wi-Fi*
• site-to-site VPN
• DSLAM
• CMTS

I.162. In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three)

• Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.*
• IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.*
• IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.*
• IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
• IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
• IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

The IPv4 and IPv6 headers are shown below for your comparison:

IPv6 Header fields

IPv6 eliminates the Header Checksum field, which handles error checking in IPv4. IPv6 depends on reliable transmission in the data link protocols and on error checking in upper-layer protocols instead -> Answer C is correct.

While IPv4 header’s total length comprises a minimum of 20 octets (8 bits per octet), IPv6 header has only 8 fields with a fixed length of 40 octets -> Answer A is correct.

IPv4 header does not have a fixed length because of the Options fields. This field is used to convey additional information on the packet or on the way it should be processed. Routers, unless instructed otherwise, must process the Options in the IPv4 header. The processing of most header options pushes the packet into the slow path leading to a forwarding performance hit.

IPv4 Options perform a very important role in the IP protocol operation therefore the capability had to be preserved in IPv6. However, the impact of IPv4 Options on performance was taken into consideration in the development of IPv6. The functionality of Options is removed from the main header and implemented through a set of additional headers called extension headers. The “Next Header” field in IPv6 can be used to point to the extension headers.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk648/tk872/technologies_white_paper0900aecd8054d37d.html

I.163. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

• outside public
• inside local
• inside global*
• inside public
• outside global
• outside local

I.164. Which command can you enter to display the hits counter for NAT traffic?

• show ip nat statistics*
• debug ip nat
• show ip debug nat
• clear ip nat statistics

I.165. What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?

• Define inside and outside interfaces*
• Define public and private IP addresses
• Define IP address pools
• Define global and local interfaces

I.166. What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?

• Ping the loopback address.
• Ping the default gateway.
• Ping the local interface address.
• Ping the remote network.*

I.167. If host Z needs to send data through router R1 to a storage server, which destination MAC address does host Z use to transmit packets?

• the host Z MAC address
• the MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to the storage server
• the MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to host Z*
• the MAC address of the storage server interface

I.168. While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping from one VLAN to another VLAN on the same switch failed. Which command verifies that IP routing is enabled on interfaces and the local VLANs are up?

• show ip interface brief*
• show ip nat statistics
• show ip statistics
• show ip route

I.169. Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT?

• when the network must route UDP traffic
• when traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts *
• when traffic that originates inside the network must be routed to internal hosts
• when the network has few public IP addresses and many private IP addresses require outside access

I.170. When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is received from one network and destined to another, which portion of the packet does if replace?

• Layer 2 frame header and trailer*
• Layer 3 IP address
• Layer 5 session
• Layer 4 protocol

I.171. On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?

• a router
• a Layer 2 switch
• a hub*

I.172. What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?

• An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.*
• An IPv4 address must be configured.
• Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
• IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.

I.173. Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?

• 172.20.1.0
• 127.0.0.1
• 192.168.0.119
• 239.255.0.1*

I.174. Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?

• 1500
• 9216
• 1600
• 1518*

I.175. DRAG DROP. Drag the terms on the left onto the appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.176. SIMULATION

A network associate is configuring a router for the Weaver company to provide internet access. The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.18.184.105 – 198.18.184.110. The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously. The hosts in the company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of 192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30.

The following have already been configured on the router:
The basic router configuration
The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside
The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will
be a stub network, no routing protocol will be required.)
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”
The task is to complete the NAT configuration using all IP addresses assigned by the ISP to provide internet
access for the hosts in the weaver LAN. Functionality can be tested by clicking on the host provided for
testing.
Configuration information:

Correct Answer: See Explanation
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Step 1: Router Name

Step 2: NAT Configuration

Step 3: Save Configuration
Weaver#copy run start
Verification:
We can verify the answer by pinging the ISP IP Address (192.0.2.114) from Host for testing.
Click “Host for testing”
In command prompt, type “ping 192.0.2.114”. If ping succeeded, then the NAT is working properly.
Screen Shots:

I.177. Instructions

This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by clicking on the corresponding button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by clicking the numbers to the left question. In order to complete the questions, you will need to refer to the topology.

To gain access to the topology, click on the topology button of the screen. When you have finished viewing the topology, you can return to your questions by clicking on the Questions button to the left.

Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar.
Scenario

Refer to the topology. The diagram represents a small network with a single connection to the Internet.

If the router R1 has a packet with a destination address 192.168.1.255, what describes the operation of the network?

• R1 will forward the packet out all interfaces.
• R1 will drop this packet because this it is not a valid IP address.*
• As R1 forwards the frame containing this packet, Sw-A will add 192.168.1.255 to its MAC table.
• R1 will encapsulate the packet in a frame with a destination MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.
• As R1 forwards the frame containing this packet, Sw-A will forward it to the device assigned the IP address of 192.168.1.255.

I.178. Instructions

This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by clicking on the corresponding button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by clicking the numbers to the left question. In order to complete the questions, you will need to refer to the topology.

To gain access to the topology, click on the topology button of the screen. When you have finished viewing the topology, you can return to your questions by clicking on the Questions button to the left.

Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar.

Scenario

Refer to the topology. The diagram represents a small network with a single connection to the Internet.

Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 network must access files located on the Server 1. What route could be configured on router R1 for file requests to reach the server?

• ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s/0/0/0*
• ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.265.200.226
• ip route 209.165.200.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.250
• ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 209.165.100.250

I.179. Instructions

This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by clicking on the corresponding button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by clicking the numbers to the left question. In order to complete the questions, you will need to refer to the topology.

To gain access to the topology, click on the topology button of the screen. When you have finished viewing the topology, you can return to your questions by clicking on the Questions button to the left.

Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging itby the title bar.

Scenario

Refer to the topology. The diagram represents a small network with a single connection to the Internet.

When a packet is sent from Host 1 to Server 1, in how many different frames will the packet be encapsulated as it is sent across the internetwork?

• 0
• 1
• 2*
• 3
• 4

I.180. Instructions

This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by clicking on the corresponding button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by clicking the numbers to the left question. In order to complete the questions, you will need to refer to the topology.

To gain access to the topology, click on the topology button of the screen. When you have finished viewing the topology, you can return to your questions by clicking on the Questions button to the left.Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar.

Scenario

Refer to the topology. The diagram represents a small network with a single connection to the Internet.

What must be configured on the network on order for users on the Internet to view web pages located on Web
Server 2?

• • On Router R2, configure a default static route to the 192.168.1.0 network
  • On router R2, configure DNS to resolve the URL assigned to Web Server 2 to the 192.168.1.10 address.
  • On router R1, configure NAT to translate an address on the 209.165.100.0/24 network to 192.168.1.10.*
  • On router R1, configure DHCP to assign a registered IP address on the 209.165.100.0/24 network to Web

Server 2.

I.181. Instructions

This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by clicking on the corresponding button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by clicking the numbers to the left question. In order to complete the questions, you will need to refer to the topology.

To gain access to the topology, click on the topology button of the screen. When you have finished viewing the topology, you can return to your questions by clicking on the Questions button to the left.Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar.

Scenario

Refer to the topology. The diagram represents a small network with a single connection to the Internet.

The router address 192.168.1.250 is the default gateway for both the Web Server 2 and Host 1. What is the correct subnet mask for this network?

• 255.255.255.0*
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.250
• 255.255.255.252

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

1. Based on the information provided in the exhibit, we know that the IP address of the interface Fa0/0 is 192.168.1.250/24, that is to say the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0??
2. When configuring the correct IP address and not wasting IP address, the network of 192.168.1.0 needs to contain the following three IP addresses of interfaces:

The correct mask is 255.255.255.0.

I.182. Which type of broadcast barely used in IPv4 which also exist in IPv6 like?

• unicast
• multicast
• broadcast
• anycast*

I.183. Which type of cable must you use to connect to device with mdi interfaces?

• rolled
• crossover*
• crossed
• straight through

I.184. DRAG DROP. Refer to the exhibit.

You are configuring the router to provide Static NAT for the web server.
Drag and drop the configuration commands from left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the
configuration on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.185. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop each cable type from the left onto the type of connection for which it is best suited on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.186. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the characteristics of a cloud environment from the left onto the correct examples on the right

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.187. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not alloptions are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.188. Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

• There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
• A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.*
• Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.*
• The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
• Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

I.189. What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?

• NIC
• BIA
• OUI*
• VAI

I.190. What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

• A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line.
• A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line.
• A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line.
• A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line.*

I.191. Which two statements about EUI-64 addressing are true? (Choose two.)

• The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the last 24 bits of the interface MAC address.*
• A 64-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address.
• A locally administrated address has the universal/local bit set to 0.*
• A 96-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address.
• The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 14 bits of the interface MAC address.

I.192. DRAG DROP. Drag and Drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the correct IP traffic types on
the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.193. DRAG DROP. Drag each category on the left to its corresponding router output line on the right. Each router output line is in
the result of a show ip interface command. Not all categories are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.194. Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)

• It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
• It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.*
• It is bandwidth-intensive.
• It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
• It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.*

I.195. Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)

• They use ICMPv6 type 134.*
• The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.*
• The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
• They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
• Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.

I.196. Which three technical services support cloud computing?

• network-monitored power sources
• layer 3 network routing*
• ip localization*
• redundant connections
• VPN connectivity
• extended SAN services*

I.197. Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?

• Cisco OpenDaylight
• Cisco ACI
• Cisco APIC*
• Cisco IWAN

I.198. What are the three major components of cisco network virtualization? (Choose Three)

• network access control*
• path isolation*
• virtual network services*
• policy enforcement

I.199. Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4 network?

• interface ip address verification
• MAC address table verification
• neighbor discovery verification*
• Routing table entry verification

I.200. When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configuration checks you
must perform?

• Verify that the router interface IP address is correct.*
• Verify that the DNS is configured correctly.
• Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.*
• Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.
• Verify that a default route is configured.
• Verify that the route appears in the Routing table*

I.201. Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across the internet?

• Unique Local
• Compatible
• Link local
• Global*

I.202. Which two statements about IPv6 address 2002:ab10:beef::/48 are true?(choose two)

• The embedded IPv4 address can be globally routed.*
• It is used for an ISATAP tunnel
• The embedded IPv4 address is an RFC 1918 address
• The MAC address 20:02:b0:10:be:ef is embedded into the IPv6 address
• It is used for a 6to4 tunnel*

I.203. Which three functions are major components of a network virtualization architecture? (Choose three.)

• virtual network services*
• policy enforcement
• network access control*
• network resilienceE. authentication services
• path isolation*

I.204. Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

• reduces routing table entries*
• auto-negotiation of media rates
• efficient utilization of MAC addresses
• dedicated communications between devices
• ease of management and troubleshooting*

I.205. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default configuration. Which two destination addresses will host 4 use to send data to host 1? (Choose two.)

• the IP address of host 1*
• the IP address of host 4
• the MAC address of host 1
• the MAC address of host 4
• the MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of the R1 router
• the MAC address of the Fa0/1 interface of the R1 router*

I.206. Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

• DNS
• DHCPv6**
• DHCP
• autoconfiguration*

I.207. Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?

• traceroute
• telnet
• ping*
• show ipv6

I.208. Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?

• access point*
• switch
• wireless controller
• firewall

I.209. A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

• More collision domains will be created.
• IP address utilization will be more efficient.
• More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
• An additional broadcast domain will be created.*

I.210. When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues, how can you verify that an IP address is known to a router?

• Check whether the IP address is in the routing table
• Check whether an ACL is blocking the IP address
• Check whether the IP address is in the CAM table
• Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table*

I.211. Which two statements about the tunnel mode ipv6ip command are true? (Choose two.)

• It enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel.
• It specifies IPv4 as the encapsulation protocol.
• It specifies IPv6 as the encapsulation protocol.
• It specifies IPv6 as the transport protocol.
• It specifies that the tunnel is a Teredo tunnel.

R1(config)#int tunnel 1
R1(config-if)#ipv6 address 1cde:7ea:348:1::3/127
R1(config-if)#tunnel source 10.1.1.1
R1(config-if)#tunnel destination 10.1.1.2
R1(config-if)#tunnel mode ipv6ip

I.212. Which configuration can you apply to enable encapsulation on a subinterface?

• interface FastEthernet 0/0
  encapsulation dot1Q 30
  ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
• interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
  ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
• interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
  description subinterface vlan 30
• interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
  encapsulation dot1Q 30
  ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0*

Router(config)#interface f0/0
Router(config-if)#no shutdown

(Note: The main interface f0/0 doesn’t need an IP address but it must be turned on)

Router(config)#interface f0/0.0
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 10
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-subif)#interface f0/0.1
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 20
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

I.213. What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the range of an 802.11g access point?

• The access point transmits, but the node is unable to receive.
• A connection occurs.
• Both the node and the access point are unable to transmit.
• The node transmits, but the access point is unable to receive.*

I.214. A network administrator receives an error message while trying to configure the Ethernet interface of a router with IP address 10.24.24.24/29. Which statement explains the reason for this issue?

• This address is a broadcast address.
• VLSM-capable routing protocols must be enabled first on the router.
• The Ethernet interface is faulty.
• This address is a network address.*

I.215. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the networking features of functions from the left onto the planes on which they operate on the
right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.216. Which two statements about 1000BASE-T UTP cable are true? (Choose two.)

• It uses four wire pairs*
• It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 feet in length
• It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 meters in length
• Both ends of the cable can transmit and receive simultaneously*
• It uses four wires

I.217. Which two statements about IPv6 multicast addresses are true? (Choose two.)

• They use the prefix FC80::/8
• If the lifetime parameter is set to 1, the route is permanent
• They identify a group of interfaces on different devices*
• They use the prefix FF00::/8*
• If the scope parameter is set to 5, the route is local to the node

I.218. Which command can you enter on a Cisco IOS device to enable a scheduled algorithm that directs lookup calls to multiple DNS hosts?

• ip name-server 192.168.10.14 192.168.10.15
• ip domain list
• ip domain lookup
• ip domain round-robin*

I.219. Which three elements are field in a basic Ethernet data frame? (Choose three.)

• Preamble*
• Frame Check Sequence*
• Header Checksum
• Length/Type*
• Time to Live
• Version

I.220. Which prompt does a Cisco switch display when it is running in privileged exec mode?

• switch#*
• switch(config)#
• switch(config-if)#
• switch>

I.221. DRAG DROP. You are connecting a variety of devices on your network. Drag and drop the combinations of devices from the
left onto the correct cable types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.222. Which benefit of implementing a dual-homed WAN connection instead of a single-homed connection is true?

• Only dual-homed connections support recursive routing
• Only dual-homed connections enable an individual router to tolerate the loss of a network link*
• Only dual-homed connections support split horizon with EIGRP
• Only dual-homed connections support OSPF in conjunction with BGP

Section II: LAN Switching Technologies

II.1. Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?

• It is Cisco-proprietary Protocol*
• It can discover information from routers, firewalls and switches
• It runs on the network layer
• It runs on the physical layer and the data link layer.

II.2. A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

• A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports
• B. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure mac addresses in the voice vlan.
• C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.*
• D. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
• E. When dynamic mac address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses up to the maximum defined.*

II.3. Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?

• no carrier
• late collisions*
• giants
• CRC errors
• deferred
• runts

II.4. Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a switching decision?

• fragment-free switching
• store-and-forward switching
• cut-through switching*
• ASIC switching

II.5. Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking mode?

• show ip interface brief
• show vlan
• show interfaces
• show interface switchport*

II.6. What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

• A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic.*
• A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure.
• A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.*
• Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.*
• Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size.
• VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain.
• Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

II.7. Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?

• Switch#show ip interface vlan 20
• Switch#show vlan id 20*
• Switch#show ip interface brief
• Switch#show interface vlan 20

II.8. When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it receives a BPDU?

• It continues operating normally.
• It goes into a down/down state.
• It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN.
• It goes into an errdisable state.*

II.9. What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

• VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.*
• VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
• VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
• VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
• VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.*
• VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.*

II.10. Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?

• A. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and ST.
• B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.*
• C. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
• D. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.

II.11. Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?

• There is a duplex mismatch.
• The device at the other end of the connection is powered off.
• The serial interface is disabled.
• The interface is configured with the shutdown command.
• Port security has disabled the interface.*
• The interface is fully functioning.

II.12. Which statement about LLDP is true?

• It is configured in global configuration mode.
• It is configured in global configuration mode.*
• The LLDP update frequency is a fixed value.
• It runs over the transport layer.

Sw(config)# lldp run

II.13. If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?

• switch 0040.00.90C5
• switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3
• switch 0004.9A1A.C182*
• switch 00E0.F726.3DC6

II.14. Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP.No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

• A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated *
• B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root *
• C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
• D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
• E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
• F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root*

II.15. Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?

• cut through
• fast switching
• process switching
• Cisco Express Forwarding*

II.16. What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two.)

• The interface displays a connected (up/up) state even when the duplex settings are mismatched.**
• 1-Gbps interfaces are full-duplex by default.
• Full-duplex interfaces use CSMA/CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by collisions.
• The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.*
• Autonegotiation is disabled.

II.17. Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?

• enable cdp
• cdp enable
• cdp run*
• run cdp

II.18. If all switches are configured with default values, which switch will take over when the primary root bridge experiences a power loss?

• switch O0E0.F726 3DC6
• switch 00E0.F90B 6BE3
• switch 0004.9A1A C182*
• switch 0040.0BC0 90C5

II.19. Which two protocols can detect native VLAN mismatch errors? (Choose two.)

• STP*
• PAgP
• Cisco Discovery Protocol*
• DTP
• VTP

II.20. Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk mode, dynamic desirable mode, or desirable auto mode?

• trunk
• access
• dynamic desirable
• dynamic auto*

II.21. Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk mode, dynamic desirable mode, or desirable or auto mode?

• Dynamic Auto
• Dynamic Desirable*
• Access
• Trunk

II.22. Which three statements about DWDM are true? (Choose three)

• It allows a single strand of fiber to support bidirectional communications*
• It is used for long-distance and submarine cable systems*
• It can multiplex up to 256 channels on a single fiber
• It supports both the SDH and SONET standards*
• Each channel can carry up to a 1-Gbps signal
• It supports simplex communications over multiple strands of fiber

II.23. Which three statements about DTP are true? (Choose three.)

• It is a proprietary protocol.*
• It is a universal protocol.
• It is a Layer 2-based protocol.*
• It is enabled by default.*
• It is disabled by default.
• It is a Layer 3-based protocol.

II.24. Which three commands must you enter to create a trunk that allows VLAN 20? (Choose three.)

• Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk*
• Switch(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic desirableC. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
• Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
• Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20*
• Switch(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic auto*

II.25. Which feature facilitates the tagging of frames on a specific VLAN?

• Routing
• Hairpinning
• Encapsulation*
• Switching

II.26. Which statement about spanning-tree root-bridge election is true?

• It is always performed automatically
• Each VLAN must have its own root bridge*
• Each VLAN must use the same root bridge
• Each root bridge must reside on the same root switch

II.27. Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true? ( Choose two)

• They can be configured as trunk ports.
• Two or more VLANs can be configured on the interface.
• 802.1Q encapsulation must be configured on the interface.
• Exactly one VLAN can be configured on the interface.*
• They can be configured as host ports.*

II.28. Which three options are switchport configurations that can always avoid duplex mismatch errors between two switches? (Choose three.)

• set both side on auto-negotation.*
• set both sides on half-duplex*
• set one side auto and other side half-duplex
• set both side of connection to full-duplex*
• set one side auto and other side on full-duplex
• set one side full-duplex and other side half-duplex

II.29. Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?

• on the default vlan
• on the management vlan
• on the native vlan
• on any vlan except the default vlan*

II.30. Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

• When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC
  address and the MAC address table.
• Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.*
• Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
• Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

II.31. Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology ( choose 2)?

• it reduces management overhead.*
• switches can be located anywhere regardless of there physical location.
• it requires only 1 IP add per VLAN.*
• it requires only 3 IP add per VLAN.
• it supports HSRP VRRP GLBP.
• it support redundant configuration files.

II.32. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers? 

• Switch1
• Switch2
• Switch3*
• Switch4

II.33. Which type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch?

• dynamic*
• manual
• automatic
• static

II.34. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

• to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2*
• to allow communication with devices on a different network
• to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
• to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
• to allow communication between different devices on the same network*
• to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

II.35. When you enable PortFast on a switch port, the port immediately transitions to which state?

• Blocking
• Forwarding*
• Learning
• Listening

II.36. Which two EtherChannel PAgP modes can you configure? (Choose two.)

• on
• desirable*
• passive
• auto*
• active

II.37. Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?

• Switch(config)#vlan 20
  Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
  Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20  *
• Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y
  Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
  Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
• Switch(config)#vlan 20
  Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
  Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
• Switch(config)#vlan 20
  Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
  Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
• Switch(config)#vlan 20
  Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20
  Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

II.38. Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)

• They may indicate a duplex mismatch.*
• By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.*
• They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
• They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
• They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.

II.39. Which command can you enter to re-enable Cisco Discovery Protocol on a local router after it has been disabled?

• Router(config-if)#cdp run
• Router(config-if)#cdp enable
• Router(config)#cdp run*
• Router(config)#cdp enable

II.40. Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three of these statements are true? (Choose three.)

• All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.*
• Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
• The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.*
• All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
• All designated ports are in a forwarding state.*
• This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

II.41. Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

• show interface trunk*
• show interface interface
• show ip interface brief
• show interface vlan
• show interface switchport*

II.42. Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

• discarding*
• listening
• learning
• forwarding*
• disabled

II.43. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwithchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

Correct Answer: B

• SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
  SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
• SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
  SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
• SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
  SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
  SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown*
• SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
  SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
  SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
• SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
  SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
  SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

II.43.

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

• SwitchB(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
  SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
  SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown
• SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
  SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
  SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
  SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown*
• SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
  SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
  SwitchB(config-if)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
  SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown
• SwitchB(config)#ip default-network 192.168.8.254
  SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
  SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
  SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown

II.44. Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

• They increase the size of collision domains.
• They allow logical grouping of users by function.*
• They can enhance network security.*
• They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
• They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.*
• They simplify switch administration.

II.45. Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

• Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
• Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.**
• Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
• Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.*
• In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.*
• If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

II.46. What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?

• Forwarding
• Enabled
• Disabled*
• Errdisabled

II.47. How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.)

• switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q*
• switchport mode trunk*
• switchport trunk allowed vlan 20*
• switchport trunk native vlan 20
• switchport mode dynamic desirable

II.48. Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?

• Trunk Ports
• Access Ports
• Dynamic Auto*
• Dynamic Desirable

II.49. What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

• speed
• DTP negotiation settings*
• trunk encapsulation
• duplex

II.50. Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?

• MSTP*
• RSTP
• PVST+
• Mono Spanning Tree

II.51. Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

• RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.*
• RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.*
• RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
• RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.*
• RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
• RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links

II.52. Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)

• SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
• SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
• SW1#show running-config*
• SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12*
• SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

II.53. Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?

• VLANs have not been created yet.
• An IP address must be configured for the port.
• The port is currently configured for access mode.*
• The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
• The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.

II.54. Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

• Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
• Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.*
• Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
• Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

II.55. Standard industrialized protocol of etherchannel?

• LACP*
• PAGP
• PRP
• REP

II.56. How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches?

• Configure VLAN
• Confiture NTP
• Configure each VLAN
• Configure VTP*

II.57. What are contained in layer 2 ethernet frame? (Choose Three.)

• Preamble*
• TTL
• Type/length*
• Frame check sequence*
• version
• others

II.58. Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

• It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
• It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.*
• It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
• It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
• It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.*

II.59. Which command is used to know the duplex speed of serial link?

• show line
• show interface*
• show protocol
• show run

II.60. A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast enabled. Which state does the interface enter when it receives a BPDU?

• Blocking
• Shutdown
• Listening
• Errdisable*

II.61. Which mode are in PAgP? (choose two)

• Auto.*
• Desirable.*
• Active.
• Passive.
• On.

II.62. In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

• when they receive a special token.
• when there is a carrier.
• when they detect no other devices are sending.*
• when the server grants access.
• when the medium is idle.*

II.63. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

• Switch3, port fa0/1
• Switch3, port fa0/12
• Switch4, port fa0/11*
• Switch4, port fa0/2
• Switch3, port Gi0/1
• Switch3, port Gi0/2

II.64. Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

• 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66*
• 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
• 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
• 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

II.65. Refer to the exhibit. What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)

• The number of collision domains would remain the same.
• The number of collision domains would decrease.
• The number of collision domains would increase.*
• The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.*
• The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
• The number of broadcast domains would increase.

II.66. For which two protocols can PortFast alleviate potential host startup is-sues? (Choose two.)

• DHCP*
• DNS*
• OSPF
• RIP
• CDP

II.67. Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?

• IEEE 802 1w
• IEEE 802 1D
• IEEE 802 1Q*
• IEEE 802 1p

II.68. Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?

• PortFast on the interface
• the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID*
• a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode
• Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode

Switch(config)#interface fastethernet0/1
Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access 
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 10 
Switch(config-if)#switchport voice vlan 20

II.69. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?

• The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed
• VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed
• The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode*
• VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database

II.70. Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?

• Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default*
• Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default
• Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.
• The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons

II.71. Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?

• The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
• If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.*
• The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
• The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded

II.72. Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)

• All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name*
• All switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation.
• All switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name
• The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain*
• All switches must use the same VTP version.

II.73. Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?

• The designated port
• The backup port
• The alternate port
• The root port*

II.74. Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?

• The interface number
• The port priority*
• The VLAN priority
• The hello time

Switch(config-if)#spanning-tree vlan 20 port-priority 64

II.75. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?

• The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN*
• The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
• Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064`
• A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only

II.76. Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

• 802.1d*
• VTP
• 802.1q
• SAP
• STP*

II.77. How can you disable DTP on a switch port?

• Configure the switch port as a trunk.* (no correct answer, in fact) 
• Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
• Change the operational mode to static access
• Change the administrative mode to access

II.78. Which command can you enter on a switch to display the IP addresses associated with connected devices?

• Show cdp neighbors detail*
• Show cdp neighbor
• Show cdp interface
• Show cdp traffic

II.79. Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?

• CST
• RSTP
• MSTP
• PVST+*

II.80. VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?

• The command is rejected.
• The port turns amber.
• The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.*
• The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

II.81. Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?

• the switch with the highest MAC address
• the switch with the lowest MAC address*
• the switch with the highest IP address
• the switch with the lowest IP address

II.82. Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

• spanning-tree uplinkfast
• spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst*
• spanning-tree backbonefast
• spanning-tree mode mst

II.83. Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?

• 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
• VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
• A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.*
• VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

II.84. Refer to the exhibit

All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

• The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
• The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
• The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.*
• VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
• Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

II.85. What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

• It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
• It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.*
• It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
• It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

II.86. Refer to the exhibit. A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?

• trunk mode mismatches
• vlans that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
• native vlan mismatches*
• allowing only vlan 2 on the destination

II.87. Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

• Broadcast frames are never sent to swiches.
• Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
• A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.*
• Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
• A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.

II.88. What can you change to select switch as root bridge?

• make lower priority*
• make higher priority
• make lower path cost
• make higher path cost

II.89. Which two types of information are held in the MAC address table? (Choose two)

• MAC address*
• soure IP address
• destination IP address
• Protocols
• Port numbers*

II.90. Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (choose three)

• Desirable*
• Auto*
• On*
• Blocking
• Transparent
• Forwarding

II.91. Which type of attack can be mitigated by configuring the default native VLAN to be unused?

• CAM table overflow
• switch spoofing
• VLAN hopping*
• MAC spoofing

II.92. Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?

• determining the path cost
• electing designated ports*
• learning the sender bridge ID
• assigning the port ID

II.93. Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?

• It provides redundancy with no impact on resource usage
• It simplifies adding and removing hosts.
• It supports better performance of high-needs applications.
• It provides higher port density with better resource usage.*

II.94. Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

• learning
• listening
• discarding*
• forwarding

II.95. What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)

• transparent
• auto*
• on*
• desirable*
• client
• forwarding

II.96. Refer to the exhibit. What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/3 to produce the given the output?

• interface FastEthernet 0/3
  Channel-group 1 mode desirable
  Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  Switchport mode trunk
• interface FastEthernet 0/3
  Channel-group 2 mode passive
  Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  Switchport mode trunk*
• interface FastEthernet 0/3
  Channel-group 2 mode on
  Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  Switchport mode trunk
• interface FastEthernet 0/3
  Channel-group 2 mode active
  Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
  Switchport mode trunk

II.97. Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually?

• dynamic
• bia
• static*
• sticky

II.98. Which two elements are fields in an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.)

• frame check sequence*
• header
• source IP address
• destination IP address
• type*

II.99. What is one benefit of PVST+?

• PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
• PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
• PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.*
• PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

II.100. Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

• 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.*
• 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
• 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.*
• 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
• 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.*

II.101. Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over FastEthernet?

• 802.3ad
• 802.1w
• 802.1Q*
• 802.1d

II.102. Which of the port is not part of STP protocol.

• Listening
• Learning
• Forwarding
• Discarding*

II.103. Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified and removed on a cisco switch?

• 2 through 1001*
• 1 through 1001
• 1 through 1002
• 2 through 1005

II.104. Based on the output below, which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)

• A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5*
• FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.*
• FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned mac address
• Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disable.
• Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.
• FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.

II.105. Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 port on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?

• The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
• SwitchX(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
  SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
• SwitchX(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
• SwitchX(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10 SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20

II.106. Which RPVST+ port state is excluded from all STP operations?

• learning
• forwarding
• blocking
• disabled*

II.107. Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChannel?

• PAgP
• LACP*
• Cisco Discovery Protocol
• DTP

II.108. Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs? (Choose two)

• device management address.*
• device type*
• spanning-tree topology
• routing configuration
• access-list configuration

II.109. Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true ?(choose two)

• It enables the administrator to manage multiple switches from a single management interface*
• The administrator can create only one stack of switches in a network which is under the same administrative domian
• When a new master switch is elected,it queries the previous master for its running configuration
• The administrator can add additional switches to the stack as demand increases*
• Each switch manages its own MAC address table

II.110. Refer to the exhibit.If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?

• There is a speed mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces.*
• There is an MTU mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces
• There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interface
• SW1’s Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down.

II.111. For which two reasons might be you choose chassis aggregation instead of stacking switches? (Choose two.)

• to increase the number of devices in use*
• Bto increase the maximum port count
• to avoid the use of a centralized configuration manager*
• to allow hot-swapping modules
• to avoid relying solely on Ethernet interfaces

II.112. Refer to the exhibit. The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three statements are true of these devices? (Choose three.)

• The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1.*
• The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.2.
• The London router is a Cisco 2610.*
• The Manchester router is a Cisco 2610.
• The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.
• The CDP information was sent by port Serial0/0 of the London router.*

II.113. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

• Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
• Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
• Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
• Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
• Switch C, because it has the lowest priority*
• Switch D, because it has the highest priority

II.114. A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

• This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
• This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
• This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.*
• This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
• This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

II.115. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

• This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
• This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
• This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.*
• This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

II.116. Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

• It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
• It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
• It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
• It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.*

II.117. Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)

• VTP
• 802.1q*
• IGP
• ISL*
• 802.3u

II.118. Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

• 1 through 1001
• 2 through 1001*
• 1 through 1002
• 2 through 1005

II.119. Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)

• Switch A – Fa0/0
• Switch A – Fa0/1*
• Switch B – Fa0/0*
• Switch B – Fa0/1*
• Switch C – Fa0/0
• Switch C – Fa0/1

II.120. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

• The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
• VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol
• The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
• SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated*

II.121. Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)

• added security*
• dedicated bandwidth
• provides segmentation*
• allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
• contains collisions

II.122. How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is confgured on the switches?

• one*
• two
• six
• twelve

II.123. Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or forwarding state?

• converged*
• redundant
• provisioned
• spanned

II.124. A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?

• the port-channel 1 interface*
• the highest number member interface
• all member interfaces
• the lowest number member interface

II.125. Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?

• BackboneFast
• UplinkFast
• Root Guard
• BPDU Guard*
• BPDU Filter

II.126. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts inVLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?

• The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.
• The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.*
• At least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate.
• Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.
• A router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Sw12.

II.127. Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator’s next action be?

• Check the trunk encapsulation mode for Switch C’s fa0/1 port.
• Check the duplex mode for Switch C’s fa0/1 port.
• Check the duplex mode for Switch A’s fa0/2 port.*
• Check the trunk encapsulation mode for Switch A’s fa0/2 port

II.128. In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

• the operation of VTP
• a method of VLAN trunking*
• an approach to wireless LAN communication
• the process for root bridge selection
• VLAN pruning

II.129. An administrator is unsuccessful in adding VLAN 50 to a switch. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator views the output of the show vtp status command, which is displayed in the graphic. What commands must be issued on this switch to add VLAN 50 to the database? (Choose two.)

• Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 50
• Switch(vlan)# vtp server*
• Switch(config)# config-revision 20
• Switch(config)# vlan 50 name Tech
• Switch(vlan)# vlan 50*
• Switch(vlan)# switchport trunk vlan 50

II.130. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in the exhibited topology?

• one
• two
• three*
• four
• five
• six

II.131. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has created a new VLAN on Switch1 and added host C and host D. The administrator has properly configured switch interfaces FastEthernet0/13 through FastEthernet0/14 to be members of the new VLAN. However, after the network administrator completed the configuration, host A could communicate with host B, but host A could not communicate with host C or host D. Which commands are required to resolve this problem?

Correct Answer: A

II.132. On a network of one department, there are four PCs connected to a switch, as shown in the following figure: After the Switch1 restarts. Host A (the host on the left) sends the first frame to Host C (the host on the right). What the first thing should the switch do?

• Switch1 will add 192.168.23.12 to the switching table.
• Switch1 will add 192.168.23.4 to the switching table.
• Switch1 will add 000A.8A47.E612 to the switching table.*
• None of the above

II.133. A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell the new technician about VTP configuration? (Choose three.)

• A switch in the VTP client mode cannot update its local VLAN database.*
• A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.*
• A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
• A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.*
• A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
• A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.

II.134. A company is installing IP phones. The phones and office computers connect to the same device. To ensure maximum throughput for the phone data, the company needs to make sure that the phone traffic is on a different network from that of the office computer data traffic. What is the best network device to which to directly connect the phones and computers, and what technology should be implemented on this device? (Choose two.)

• hub
• router
• switch*
• STP
• subinterfaces
• VLAN*

II.135. What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)

• It allows switches to read frame tags.
• It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically.
• It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network.*
• It allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface.
• It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment.*

II.136. Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect a root bridge? (Choose two.)

• amount of RAM
• bridge priority*
• IOS version
• IP address
• MAC address*
• speed of the links

II.137. Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

• A new switch has no VLANs configured.
• Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.*
• VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
• Each VLAN uses a separate address space.*
• A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.*
• VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

II.138. Switch ports operating in which two roles will forward traffic according to the IEEE 802.1w standard? (Choose two.)

• alternate
• backup
• designated*
• disabled
• root*

II.139. Refer to the exhibit. This command is executed on 2960Switch: Which two of these statements correctly identify results of executing the command? (Choose two.)

• Port security is implemented on the fa0/1 interface.
• MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa does not need to be learned by this switch.*
• Only MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa can source frames on the fa0/1 segment.
• Frames with a Layer 2 source address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
• MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa will be listed in the MAC address table for interface fa0/1 only.*

II.140. Refer to the exhibit. The switches on a campus network have been interconnected as shown. All of the switches are running Spanning Tree Protocol with its default settings. Unusual traffic patterns are observed and it is discovered that Switch9 is the root bridge. Which change will ensure that Switch1 will be selected as the root bridge instead of Switch9?

• Raise the bridge priority on Switch1.
• Lower the bridge priority on Switch9.
• Raise the bridge priority on Switch9.
• Physically replace Switch9 with Switch1 in the topology.
• Disable spanning tree on Switch9.
• Lower the bridge priority on Switch1.*

II.141. Which statement about DTP is true?

• It uses the native VLAN.
• It negotiates a trunk link after VTP has been configured.
• It uses desirable mode by default.
• It sends data on VLAN 1.*

II.142. Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by replicating it to another port or ports on the same switch?

• copy run start
• traceroute
• the ICMP Echo IP SLA
• SPAN*

II.143. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output.
Which information is provided by the Load value?

• the percentage of use of the link
• the preference of the link
• the session count of the link
• the number source-destination pairs on the link*

II.144. Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?

• The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
• The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
• The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
• The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
• The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.*

II.145. Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode responds to a topology change?

• It immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
• It sets a timer to delete all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.
• It sets a timer to delete dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
• It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.*

II.146. Which statement about switch access ports is true?

• They drop packets with 802.1Q tags.*
• A VLAN must be assigned to an access port before it is created.
• They can receive traffic from more than one VLAN with no voice support
• By default, they carry traffic for VLAN 10.

II.147. Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)

• listening
• backup
• disabled
• learning*
• discarding*

II.148. Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to access the network?

• CSMA/CD*
• IGMP
• port security
• split horizon

II.149. Which two statements about switch stacking are true? (Choose two)

• The stack is powered by a single power cable*
• The switches are connected in a daisy-chain fashion*
• The first and last switch in the stack must be connected to one another
• The switches are connected by crossover cables
• The switches must be fully meshed

II.150. Which symptom most commonly indicates that two connecting interfaces are configured with a duplex mismatch?

• the spanning-tree process shutting down
• collisions on the interface*
• an interface with a down/down status
• an interface with an up/down status

II.151. Which option is the main function of congestion management?

• discarding excess traffic
• queuing traffic based on priority*
• classifying traffic
• providing long-term storage of buffered data

II.152. Which feature must you enable to distribute vlans automatically across multiple switch?

• Configure NTP
• Configure the native VLAN
• Define Each vlan
• Configure VTP*

II.153. Which three statements about VTP features are true? (Choose three.)

• VTP works at Layer 3 of the OSI model and requires that a management VLAN IP address be configured.
• When properly configured, VTP minimizes VLAN misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies.*
• When properly configured, VTP maintains VLAN configuration consistency and accelerates trunk link negotiation.
• Each broadcast domain on a switch can have its own unique VTP domain.
• VTP pruning is used to increase available bandwidth in trunk links.*
• To configure a switch to be part of two VTP domains, each domain must have its own passwords.
• Client, server, and transparent are valid VTP modes.*

II.154. Which two statements about LLDP are true ?(choose two)

• It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices*
• It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3
• It is a Cisco-proprietary technology
• It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11a specification
• It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer*

II.155. Which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches?(choose two)

• Each switch in the stack handles the MAC table independently from the others
• You can add or remove switches without taking the stack down.*
• Each switch in the stack can use a different IOS image
• The stack enables any active member to take over as the master switch if the existing master fails.*
• You can license the entire stack with a single master license

II.156. Which VTP mode cannot make a change to vlan?

• server
• off
• client*
• transparent

II.157. Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two)

• duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN*
• multiple errors on switchport interfaces
• congestion on the switch inband path*
• a failing NIC in an end device
• an overloaded shared segment

II.158. Which protocol supports sharing the VLAN configuration between two or more switches?

• multicast
• STP
• VTP*
• split-horizon

II.159. Which spanning-tree feature places a port immediately into a forwarding stated?

• BPDU guard
• PortFast*
• loop guard
• UDLD
• Uplink Fast

II.160. In which STP state does MAC address learning take place on a PortFast-enabled port?

• listening
• forwarding*
• discarding
• learning

II.161. Refer to the exhibit.
A network associate needs to configure the switches and router in the graphic so that the hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server in VLAN2. Which two Ethernet segments would need to be configured as trunk links? (Choose two.)

• A
• B
• C*
• D
• E
• F*

II.162. Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?

• 802.1x
• 802.1q*
• 802.1w
• 802.1s

II.163. What is the default VLAN on an access port?

• 0
• 1*
• 10
• 1024

Switch(config)#interface fa0/1
Switch(config-if)#switchport mode access

II.164. Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to VLANs?

• server
• off
• client*
• transparent

II.165. On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi-VLAN communication?

• interface port
• access port
• switch port
• trunk port*

II.166. Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two)

• RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
• RSTP defines new port roles.*
• RSTP defines no new port states.
• RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
• RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.*

II.167. If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?

• a switch with priority 20480*
• a switch with priority 8192
• a switch with priority 4096
• a switch with priority 12288

II.168. What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)

• 802.2 Protocol
• 802.3 Protocol*
• 10BaseT half duplex
• CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs*
• CSMA/CA Stops transmitting when congestion occurs

II.169. What field is consisted of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802.1Q?

• SA*
• DA
• FCS
• SOF

II.170. Which three options are switchport configurations that can always avoid duplex mismatch errors between theswitches? (Choose three.)

• Set both side auto-negotiation*
• Set both sides on half duplex*
• Set one side auto and the other side half duplex.
• Set both sides of connection to full duplex.*
• Set one side auto and the other side on full duplex.
• Set one side full duplex and the other side half duplex.

II.171. Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate with one another?

• Intra-vlan routing using a layer 3 switch
• Inter-vlan routing using a layer 3 switch*
• Inter-vlan routing using a layer 2 switch
• Intra-vlan routing using router on a stick

II.172. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

• Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
• Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
• Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
• The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.*
• Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
• The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.*

II.173. What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each non-root switch in a spanning-tree topology?

• path cost*
• lowest port MAC address
• VTP revision number
• highest port priority number
• port priority number and MAC address

II.174. How is provided master redundancy on a stacked switches?

• 1:N*
• N:1
• 1:1
• 1+N

II.175. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the STP features from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

II.176. Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)

• one physical interface for each subinterface
• one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface*
• a management domain for each subinterface
• subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags*
• one subinterface per VLAN*
• subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags

II.177. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?

Correct Answer: C

II.178. Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

Correct Answer: A

II.179. Based on the output below from SwitchB, which statement is true?

• The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
• The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchB is the root bridge for VLAN 40.
• SwitchB is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.*
• VLAN 40 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.

II.180. A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

• A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
• B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
• C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
• D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.*

II.181. Refer to the exhibit, The VLAN configuration of S1 is not being in this VTP enabled environment. The VTP and uplink port configurations for each switch are displayed. Which two command sets, if issued, resolve this failure and allow VTP to operate as expected? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: BE

II.182. How are VTP advertisements delivered to switches across the network?

• anycast frames
• multicast frames*
• broadcast frames
• unicast frames

II.183. What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)

• to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
• to determine the status of network services on a remote device
• to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
• to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails*
• to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device*
• to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers

II.184. How can you manually configure a switch so that it is selected as the root Switch?

• increase the priority number
• lower the port priority number
• lower the priority number*
• increase the port priority number

II.185. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the MAC address types from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right?

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

II.186. Which three options are switch port config that can always avoid duplex mismatch error between the switches? (Choose three.)

• set both side on auto-negotiation*
• set both sides on half-duplex*
• set one side auto and other side half-duplex
• set both side of connection to full-duplexE. set one side auto and other side on full-duplex*
• set one side full-duplex and other side half-duplex

II.187. Which option is the master redundancy scheme for stacked switches?

• 1:N*
• 1:1
• N:1
• 1+N

II.188. Under which two circumstances is a switch port that is configured with PortFast BPDU guard error-disabled? (Choose two.)

• when the switch receives a BPDU from a connected switch*
• when the switch receives a request for an IP address from an individual PC
• when a connected server has more than one VLAN configured on its NIC*
• when a wireless access point running in bridge mode is connected to a switch
• when a single IP address is configured on the switch

Section III: Routing Technologies

III.1. Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)

• OSPF is a link-state protocol.*
• Updates are sent to a broadcast address.
• It uses split horizon.
• Routes are updated when a change in topology occurs.*
• RIP is a link-state protocol.
• Updates are sent to a multicast address by default.*

III.2. A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

• the OSPF route
• the EIGRP route*
• the RIPv2 route
• all three routes
• the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

III.3. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

• Router# show ip eigrp neighbors*
• Router# show ip eigrp interfaces
• Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
• Router# show ip eigrp topology

III.4. Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection to a remote device is established?

• show ip bgp summary*
• show ip community-list
• show ip bgp paths
• show ip route

III.5. Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?

• router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1*
• router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
• router(config-router)#default-information originate
• router(config-router)#default-information originate always

III.6. Instructions:
– Enter IOS commands on the device to verify network operation and answer the multiple questions.
– THIS TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.
– Click the device icon to gain access to the console device. No console or enable passwords are required.
– To access the multiple choice questions, click the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
– there are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before clicking Next.

Server1 and Server2 are unable to communicate with the rest of the network. Your initial check with system administrators shows that IP address settings are correctly configured on the server side. What could be an issue?

• The VLAN encapsulation is misconfigured on the router subinterfaces.*
• The IP address is misconfigured on the primary router interface.
• The Router is missing subinterface configuration.
• The Trunk is not configured on the L2SW1 switch.

III.7.
Instructions:
– Enter IOS commands on the device to verify network operation and answer the multiple questions.
– THIS TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.
– Click the device icon to gain access to the console device. No console or enable passwords are required.
– To access the multiple choice questions, click the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
– there are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before clicking Next.Users in the main office complain that they are unable to reach Internet sites. You observe that Internet traffic that is destined towards ISP router is not forwarded correctly on R1. What could be an issue?

Ping to Internet server shows the following results from R1:

R1#ping 209.165.200.225
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 209.165.200.225, time out is 2 seconds.

Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)

• The next-hop router address for the default route is incorrectly configured.
• The default route that is to the ISP router is configured with an AD of 255.
• The default route that is to the ISP router is not configured on R1.*
• R1 is configured as the DHCP client and is not receiving the default route via DHCP from the ISP router.

III.8.
Instructions:
– Enter IOS commands on the device to verify network operation and answer the multiple questions.
– THIS TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE REVICE CINFIGURATION.
– Click the device icon to gain access to the console device. No console or enable passwords are required.
– To access the multiple choice questions, click the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
– there are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before clicking Next.
Examine the R2 configuration. The traffic that is destined to the R3 LAN network that is sourced from R2 is forwarded to R1 instead of R3. What could be an issue?

R2#traceroute 10.10.12.1 source 10.10.10.1
Type escape sequence to abort
Tracing the route to 10.10.12.1

VRF info: (vrf in name/id, vrf out name/id)
1 172.16.14.1 0 msec 1 msec 0 msec
2 172.16.14.1 !H !H *
R2#

• RIPv2 routing updates are suppressed between R2 and R3 using passive interface feature.
• RIPv2 is enabled on R3 but the R3 LAN network is not advertised into the RIPv2 domain.
• There is no issue. This behavior is normal because the default route is propagated into the RIPv2 domain by R1.
• RIPv2 is not enabled on R3.*

III.9.
Instructions:
– Enter IOS commands on the device to verify network operation and answer the multiple questions.
– THIS TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE REVICE CINFIGURATION.
– Click the device icon to gain access to the console device. No console or enable passwords are required.
– To access the multiple choice questions, click the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
– there are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before clicking Next.Which statement is correct, based on the R1 routing table?

• Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from the R1 LAN network uses static route instead of RIPv2, because the static route AD that is configured is less than the AD of RIPv2.
• Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from the R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead of static route, because the static route AD that is configured is higher than the AD of RIPv2.*
• Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from the R1 LAN network uses static route instead of RIPv2, but the traffic is forwarded to the ISP instead of the internal network.
• Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from the R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead of static route, because the static route AD that is configured is 255.

III.10. Refer to the exhibit. If R1 sends traffic to 192.168.10.45, the traffic is sent through which interface?

• FastEthernet0/1*
• FastEthernet0/0
• FastEthernet1/0
• FastEthernet1/1

III.11. To enable router on a stick on a router subinterface, which two steps must you perform? (Choose two.)

• Configure an IP route to the VLAN destination network.
• Configure encapsulation dot1q.*
• Configure a default to route traffic between subinterfaces.
• Configure full duplex and speed.
• Configure the subinterface with an IP address.*

III.12. Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two)

• They are routes to the exact /32 destination address
• They are used when a route to the destination network is missing
• They have a higher administrative distance than the default static route administrative distance*
• They are used as back-up routes when the primary route goes down*
• They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server

III.13. Refer to the exhibit. If RTR01 is configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network?(choose three)

• 192.168.2.0*
• 10.4.3.0
• 10.0.0.0*
• 172.16.0.0*
• 172.16.4.0
• 192.168.0.0

III.14.

interface Loopback0
ip address 172.16.1.33 255.255.255.224
router bgp 999
neighbor 10.1.5.2 remote-as 65001

Refer to the exhibit . Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers?

• Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224*
• Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
• Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224
• Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
• Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31
• Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31

III.15. Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

• The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
• The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
• The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.*
• The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

III.16. Which definition of default route is true?

• A route that is manually configured.
• A route used when a destination route is missing.
• A route to the exact /32 destination address*
• Dynamic route learned from the server.

III.17. Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for IPv6 can start running?

• public IP address
• loopback interface
• router ID*
• process ID

III.18. Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6?

• Only EIGRP for IPv6 advertises all connected networks.
• Only EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing process*
• As numbers are configure in EIGRP but not in EIGRPv3.
• Only EIGRP for IPv6 is enabled in the global configuration mode.

ipv6 router eigrp 1 
eigrp router-id 2.2.2.2 
no shutdown

III.19. Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, What would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

• The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
• The value of the dead timers on the router are different.*
• Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
• The process indentifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

III.20. Which two steps must you perform on each device that is configured for IPv4 routing before you implement OSPFv3?(Choose two)

• configure an autonomous system number
• configure a loopback interface
• configure a router ID
• Enable IPv6 on an interface*
• Enable IPv6 unicast routing*

III.21. Which command must you enter to enable OSPFV2 in an IPV4 network?

• ip ospf hello-interval seconds
• router ospfv2 process-id
• router ospf value
• router ospf process-id*

III.22. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output from the show ip eigrp topology command, which router is the feasible successor?

• 10.1.0.1 (Serial0), from 10.1.0.1, Send flag is 0x0
  Composite metric is (46152000/41640000), Route is Internal
  Vector metric:
  Minimum bandwidth is 64 Kbit
  Total delay is 45000 Microseconds
  Reliability is 255/255
  Load is 1/255
  Minimum MTU is 1500
  Hop count is 2
• 10.0.0.2 (Serial0.1), from 10.0.0.2, Send flag is 0x0
  Composite metric is (53973248/128256), Route is Internal
  Vector Metric:
  Minimum bandwidth is 48 Kbit
  Total delay is 25000 Microseconds
  Reliability is 255/255
  Load is 1/255
  Minimum MTU is 1500
  Hop count is 1
• 10.1.0.3 (Serial0), from 10.1.0.3, Send flag is 0x0
  Composite metric is (46866176/46354176), Route is Internal
  Vector metric:
  Minimum bandwidth is 56 Kbit
  Total delay is 45000 microseconds
  Reliability is 255/255
  Load is 1/255
  Minimum MTU is 1500
  Hop count is 2
• 10.1.1.1 (Serial0.1), from 10.1.1.1, Send flag is 0x0
  Composite metric is (46763776/46251776), Route is External
  Vector metric:
  Minimum bandwidth is 56 Kbit
  Total delay is 41000 microseconds
  Reliability is 255/255
  Load is 1/255
  Minimum MTU is 1500
  Hop count is 2

III.23. Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to send updates?

• static
• RIPng*
• OSPFv3
• IS-IS for IPv6

III.24. Which functionality does an SVI provide?

• OSI Layer 2 connectivity to switches
• remote switch administration
• traffic routing for VLANs*
• OSI Layer 3 connectivity to switches

III.25. If two OSPF neighbors have formed complete adjacency and are exchanging link-state advertisements, which state have they reached?

• Exstart
• 2-Way
• FULL*
• Exchange

III.26. Which three statements describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)

• to confine network instability to single areas of the network.*
• to reduce the complexity of router configuration
• to speed up convergence*
• to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
• to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
• to reduce routing overhead*

III.27. after you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start Which reason for the problem is most likely true ?

• The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched*
• The IPv6 network addresses on R1 and R2 are mismatched
• The autonomous system numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
• The router ids on R1 and R2 are mismatched

III.28. Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two)

• It must be manually enabled after RIP is configured as the routing protocol*
• It uses multicast address 224.0.0.2 to share routing information between peers
• its default administrative distances 120*
• It is a link-state routing protocol
• It is an EGP routing protocol

III.29. Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two)

• The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems*
• Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device*
• They can be created dynamically after the network statement is con-figured.
• The two devices must reside in the same autonomous system
• The two devices must have matching timer settings

III.30. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the BGP components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

III.31. Which two statements about EIGRP on IPv6 networks are true? (Choose two.)

• It is configured on the interface*
• It is globally configured
• It is vendor agnostic
• It supports a shutdown feature*
• It is configured using a network statement

III.32. Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

• show ip ospf link-state
• show ip ospf lsa database
• show ip ospf neighbors
• show ip ospf database*

III.33. If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)

• ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
• ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
• ip default-network 0.0.0.0*
• ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
• ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1*

III.34. Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

• Hop count
• administrative distance*
• link bandwith
• link delay
• link cost

III.35. Refer to the exhibit.
A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)

• FastEthernet0 /0
• FastEthernet0 /1*
• Serial0/0*
• Serial0/1.102*
• Serial0/1.103
• Serial0/1.104

III.36. Refer to the exhibit. The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?

Correct Answer: D

III.37. Refer to the graphic. A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.)

• HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
• HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
• HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0*
• HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6*
• HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
• HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0

III.38. What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)

• hello packets*
• SAP messages sent by other routers
• LSAs from other routers*
• beacons received on point-to-point links
• routing tables received from other link-state routers
• TTL packets from designated routers

III.39. Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)

• It supports VLSM.*
• It is used to route between autonomous systems.
• It confines network instability to one area of the network.*
• It increases routing overhead on the network.
• It allows extensive control of routing updates.*
• It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

III.40. What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

• 90
• 100
• 110*
• 120

III.41. Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?

Correct Answer: D

III.42. Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?

• 10.1.1.2
• 10.1.2.2
• 10.1.3.3*
• 10.1.4.4

III.43. Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?

• 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240
• 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252
• 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240*
• 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252
• 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240
• 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252

III.44. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, whatrouter ID will OSPF use for this router?

• 10.1.1.2
• 10.154.154.1
• 172.16.5.1*
• 192.168.5.3

III.45. Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on arouter? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1

• All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID
• Only one process number can be used on the same router.
• Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes*
• The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.*
• Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

III.46. Refer to the exhibit. What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)

Correct Answer: BE

III.47. Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# router ospf 0
• Router(config)# router ospf 1*
• Router(config)# router ospf area 0
• Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
• Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0*
• Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

III.48. Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?

• a backup route, stored in the routing table
• a primary route, stored in the routing table
• a backup route, stored in the topology table*
• a primary route, stored in the topology table

III.49. Refer to the exhibit. The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on the 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?

• The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.
• The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.
• The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 AND R3 to R1.
• The path of the packets will be R3 to R1.*

III.50. Refer to the exhibit. The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?

• ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
• ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
• ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
• ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
• ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2*
• ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2

III.51. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?

• Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.
• Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester.
• Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router.
• Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
• Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.*
• Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.

III.52. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two.)

• a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.
• a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routes to CentralRouter.
• a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to CentralRouter.*
• a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise all routes to InternetRouter.
• a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routes to InternetRouter.
• a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.*

III.53. Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

• Bandwidth*
• Bandwidth and Delay
• Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
• Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

III.54. Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)

• It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.*
• It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
• By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
• The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.*
• It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

III.55. What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)

• It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.
• It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.*
• It removes the need for virtual links.*
• It increases LSA response times.
• It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

III.56. What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?

• network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0*
• network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
• network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
• network all-interfaces area 0

III.57. What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

• Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.*
• Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.
• Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path.
• Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.*
• Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.

III.58. When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?

• exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
• exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state*
• exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
• loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

III.59. Refer to the exhibit. If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?

• A. 192.168.1.1
• B. 172.16.1.1
• C. 1.1.1.1
• D. 2.2.2.2*

III.60. What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?

Correct Answer: C

III.61. Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?

• AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers*
• Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
• The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
• Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

III.62. A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?

• The process id is configured improperly.
• The OSPF area is configured improperly.
• The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.*
• The network number is configured improperly.
• The AS is configured improperly.
• The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

III.63. Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

• All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
• R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3
• A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
• The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.*
• EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
• R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.*

III.64. Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?

• It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number.
• It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.*
• It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas.
• It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.

III.65. A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?

• a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
• a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24
• a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
• an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16
• a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1
• a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop*

III.66. What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

• 2
• 4*
• 16
• Dunlimited

III.67. Refer to the exhibit. After a RIP route is marked invalid on Router_1, how much time will elapse before that route is removed from the routing table?

• 30 seconds
• 60 seconds*
• 90 seconds
• 180 seconds
• 240 seconds

III.68. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured the internetwork that is shown in the exhibit, but has failed to configure routing properly.

Which configuration will allow the hosts on the Branch LAN to access resources on the HQ LAN with the least impact on router processing and WAN bandwidth?

Correct Answer: A

III.69. Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged. After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

Correct Answer: A

III.70. Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?

• Automatic summarization at classful boundries can cause problems on discontinuous subnets*
• EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default
• RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols
• Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates

III.71. Which pairing reflects a correct protocol-and-metric relationship?

• OSPF and number of hops and reliability
• EIGRP and link cost
• IS-IS and delay and reliability
• RIPv2 and number of hops*

III.72. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)

• It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
• It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.*
• It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.*
• It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
• It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

III.73. Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands:

What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)

• The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
• Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
• The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
• The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.*
• Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet without address translation.*

III.74. Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)

• It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.*
• It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.
• It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network.
• It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4.
• It uses the default administrative distance.*
• It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

III.75. Refer to the exhibit. The networks connected to router R2 have been summarized as a 192.168.176.0/21 route and sent to R1. Which two packet destination addresses will R1 forward to R2? (Choose two.)

• 192.168.194.160
• 192.168.183.41*
• 192.168.159.2
• 192.168.183.255
• 192.168.179.4*

III.76. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about how router JAX will choose a path to the 10.1.3.0/24 network when different routing protocols are configured? (Choose three.)

• By default, if RIPv2 is the routing protocol, only the path JAX-ORL will be installed into the routing table.*
• The equal cost paths JAX-CHI-ORL and JAX- NY-ORL will be installed in the routing table if RIPv2 is the routing protocol.
• When EIGRP is the routing protocol, only the path JAX-ORL will be installed in the routing table by default.
• When EIGRP is the routing protocol, the equal cost paths JAX-CHI-ORL, and JAX-NY-ORL will be installed in the routing table by default.*
• With EIGRP and OSPF both running on the network with their default configurations, the EIGRP paths will be installed in the routing table.*
• The OSPF paths will be installed in the routing table, if EIGRP and OSPF are both running on the network with their default configurations.

III.77. In which situation would the use of a static route be appropriate?

• To configure a route to the first Layer 3 device on the network segment.
• To configure a route from an ISP router into a corporate network.
• To configure a route when the administrative distance of the current routing protocol is too low.
• To reach a network is more than 15 hops away.
• To provide access to the Internet for enterprise hosts*

III.78. Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three)

• It uses broadcast for its routing updates
• It supports authentication*
• It is a classless routing protocol*
• It has a lower default administrative distance than RIP version 1
• It has the same maximum hop count as version 1*
• It does not send the subnet mask un updates

III.79. Which address is the IPv6 all-RIP-routers multicast group address that is used by RIPng as the destination address for RIP updates?

• FF02::9*
• FF02::6
• FF05::101
• FF02::A

III.80. If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?<

• the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface
• the IP address of the console management interface
• the highest IP address among its active interfaces*
• the lowest IP address among its active interfaces
• the priority value until a loopback interface is configured

III.81. The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.)

• It provides dynamic neighbor discovery.*
• It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals.
• It maintains neighbor relationships.*
• It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces.
• It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router.
• It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSPF.

III.82. The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)

• The command establishes a static route.*
• The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0.
• Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.*
• Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
• This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
• Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.

III.83. The Company WAN is migrating from RIPv1 to RIPv2. Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three.)

• It has the same maximum hop count as version 1.*
• It uses broadcasts for its routing updates.
• It is a classless routing protocol.*
• It has a lower default administrative distance than RIP version 1.
• It supports authentication.*
• It does not send the subnet mask in updates.

III.84. Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?

• show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
• show ipv6 route eigrp
• show ipv6 eigrp neighbors*
• show ip eigrp traffic

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

The “show ipv6 eigrp neighbors” command displays the neighbors discovered by the EIGRPv6. Notice that the neighbors are displayed by their link-local addresses.

III.85. Refer to the exhibit. Router edge-1 is unable to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency with router ISP-1. Which two configuration changes can you make on edge-1 to allow the two routers to establish adjacency? (Choose two)

• Set the subnet mask on edge-1 to 255 255.255.252.
• Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1514.
• Set the OSPF cost on edge-1 to 1522.
• Reduce the MTU on edge-1 to 1500.*
• Configure the ip ospf mtu-ignore command on the edge-1 Gi0/0 interface.*

III.86. You enter the show ipv6 route command on an OSPF device and the device displays a route. Which conclusion can you draw about the environment?

• OSPF is distributing IPv6 routes to BGP.
• The router is designated as an ABR.
• The router is designated as totally stubby.
• OSPFv3 is in use.*

III.87. Which routing protocol has the smallest default administrative distance?

• IBGP
• OSPF
• IS-IS
• EIGRP*
• RIP

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

The Administrative Distance (AD) of popular routing protocols is shown below. You should learn them by heart:Note: The AD of iBGP is 200

The smaller the AD is, the better it is. The router will choose the routing protocol with smallest AD.

In this case EIGRP with AD of 90 is the smallest one.

III.88. Which statement about static routes is true?

• The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions.
• A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address.
• The subnet mask is 255.255 255.0 by default
• The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.*

III.89. Which statement about routing protocols is true?

• Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
• OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.*
• Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
• IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.

III.90. Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a destination?

• IGRP
• RIP*
• EIGRP
• OSPF

III.91. DRAG DROP. Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

III.92. DRAG DROP. Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to the appropriate routing protocol or route. (Not all options are
used.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

III.93. DRAG DROP. Routing has been configured on the local router with these commands:

Drag each destination IP address on the left to its correct next hop address on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

III.94. When a device learns multiple routes to a specific network, it installs the route with :

• Longest bit Match (highest subnet Mask)
• lowest AD*
• lowest metric
• equal load balancing

III.95. OSPF enable on interface with multiple ipv6 prefix which ip will OSPF use?

• highest prefix
• lowest prefix
• all prefix*

III.96. Which type of routing protocol operates by using first information from each device peers?

• link-state protocols*
• distance-vector protocols
• path-vector protocols
• exterior gateway protocols

III.97. Which statements is true about Router on Stick?

• When a router have multiple subnets on a single physical link.*
• When a router have single subnet on multiple physical links.
• When a router have multiple interface on single physical links.
• When a router have single interface on multiple physical links

III.98. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop each advantage of static or dynamic routing from the left onto the correct routing type on the right.Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

III.99. What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

• It requires the use of ARP.
• It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.*
• It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
• It routes over links rather than over networks.*

III.100. What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two)