Cisco CCNA 200-125 Exam Dumps Latest – New Questions & Answers

Cisco Certified Network Associate (200-125)

The questions valid until February 24, 2020

[Most recent update: February 19, 2020 | Fixed some answers ]

Table content questions:

Section I: Network Fundamentals

I.1. In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.)

• fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
• fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
• fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
• fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
• fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B

I.2. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

• It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
• The connection is established before data is transmitted.
• It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
• It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
• It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
• It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.

I.3. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the Ethernet terms from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.4. Refer to the exhibit

All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

• Link A ­ 172.16.3.0/30
• Link A ­ 172.16.3.112/30
• Network A ­ 172.16.3.48/26
• Network A ­ 172.16.3.128/25
• Link A ­ 172.16.3.40/30
• Network A ­ 172.16.3.192/26

I.5. Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing?

• Layer 2 bridge
• Layer 2 switch
• Layer 3 switch
• router

I.6. What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)

• They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
• They are less costly than public IP addresses.
• They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
• They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
• They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.

I.7. Which two server types are used to support DNS lookup? (Choose two.)

• web server
• ESX host
• authoritative name server
• file transfer server
• name resolver

I.8. Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)

• FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.
• FC00::/7 is used in private networks.
• FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.
• FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.
• 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
• FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.

I.9. Refer to the exhibit

The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?

• Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
• Switch1(config)# line con0Switch1(config-line)# password ciscoSwitch1(config-line)# login
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1Switch1(config-if)# duplex fullSwitch1(confiq-if)# speed 100

I.10. Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)

• Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
• OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
• EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
• Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
• EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

I.11. What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

• Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
• Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
• The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
• A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

I.12. DRAG DROP. Refer to the exhibit.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.13. Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)

• They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs.
• They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security.
• They are best suited to smaller wireless networks.
• They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS.
• They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level.

I.14. Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?

• bootstrap
• POST
• mini-IOS
• ROMMON mode

I.15. Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?

• FHRP
• DHCP
• RSMLT
• ESRP

I.16. Refer to exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?

R1(config)#interface gigabitEthernet0/1 
R1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1. 255.255.255.0 
R1(config-if)#speed 100 
R1(config-if)#duplex full

• router#show ip protocols
• router#show startup-config
• router#show line
• router#show interface gig 0/1

I.17. Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and replies?

• ping
• traceroute
• ssh
• telnet

I.18. If computer A is sending traffic to computer B, which option is the source IP address when a packet leaves R1 on interface F0/1?

• IP address of the R2 interface F0/1
• Ip address of computer B
• Ip address of R1 interface F0/1
• Ip address of Computer A

I.19. Which functionality does split horizon provide?

• It prevents switching loops in distance-vector protocols.
• It prevents switching loops in link-state protocols.
• It prevents routing loops in distance-vector protocols.
• It prevents routing loops in link-state protocols.

I.20. Which MAC protocol sets a random timer to reattempt communication ?

• RARP
• CSMA/CA
• CSMA/CD
• IEEE 802.1x

I.21. How many host addresses are available on the network 192.168.1.0 subnet 255.255.255 240?

• 6
• 8
• 14
• 16

I.22. Which two statements about unique local IPv6 addresses are true?

• They are identical to IPv4 private addresses.
• They are defined by RFC 1884
• They use the prefix FEC0::/10
• They use the prefix FC00::/7
• They can be routed on the IPv6 global internet.

I.23. If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into a different port, how many collision domains are on the switch?

• 2
• 4
• 5
• 6

I.24. DRAG DROP. Drag the cable type on the left to the purpose for which is the best suited on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.25. DRAG DROP. Drag the IPv6 multicast address type on the left to their purpose on the right..

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.26. How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing table?

• it broadcast the packet to each interface on the router
• it discards the packet
• it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router
• it routes the packet to the default route

I.27. Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true?(choose two)

• Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2
• Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3
• Ethernet 10BASE-T dose not support full-duplex.
• When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD ,it terminates transmission as soon as collision occurs
• When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CA ,it terminates transmission as soon as collision occurs

I.28. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

• ipv6 local
• ipv6 host
• ipv6 unicast-routing
• ipv6 neighbor

I.29. Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

• 192.168.14.4
• 192.168.12.2
• 192.168.13.3
• 192.168.15.5

I.30. What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?

• global unicast
• anycast
• multicast
• unspecified address

I.31. When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it handle the packet?

• It discards the packet
• It sends the packet over the route with the best metric
• It sends the packet to the next hop address
• It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort

I.32. If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learns about the same destination network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?

• It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors
• It sends a withdrawal signal to the neighboring router
• It disables the routing protocol
• It prefers the static route

I.33. Which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 subnet 255.255.255.252?

• /29
• /30
• /31
• /32

I.34. Which six-byte field in a basic Ethernet frame must be an individual address?

• SOF
• FCS
• DA
• SA

I.35. If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?

• 1
• 2
• 4
• 8

I.36. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

• 10.0.0.0 /21
• 10.0.0.0 /22
• 10.0.0.0 /23
• 10.0.0.0 /24

I.37. What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?

• Tos Field
• DSCP
• IP Precedence
• Cos
• -ANOTHER OPTION-

I.38. What feature uses a random time to re-send a frame?

• CSMA/CA
• -ANOTHER OPTION-
• -ANOTHER OPTION-
• CSMA/CD

I.39. Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?

• IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
• The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
• The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
• Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.

I.40. If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?

• 5
• 2
• 3
• 4

I.41. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

• an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network.
• an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host.
• a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
• a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
• a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator

I.42. You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

• 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
• 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
• 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
• 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
• 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

I.43. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the IPv6 IP addresses from the left onto the correct IPv6 address types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.44. What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?

• 172.16.1.0/26
• 172.16.1.0/25
• 172.16.1.0/24
• the default route

I.45. Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

• transport
• network
• presentation
• session
• application

I.46. What are the address that will show at the show ip route if we configure the above statements? (Choose Three.)

• 10.0.0.0
• 10.4.3.0
• 172.15.4.0
• 172.15.0.0
• 192.168.4.0
• 192.168.0.0

I.47. Which feature facilitates the tagging of frames on a specific VLAN?

• Routing
• Hairpinning
• Encapsulation
• Switching

I.48. What does split horizon prevent?

• routing loops, link state
• routing loops, distance vector
• switching loops, STP
• switching loops, VTP

I.49. Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?

• unicast
• multicast
• anycast
• broadcast

I.50. What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?

• 00000000
• 11111100
• 11111111
• 11111101

I.51. Describe the best way to troubleshoot and isolate a network problem?

• Create an action plan
• Implement an action plan
• Gather facts
• others

I.52. In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?

• the QoS byte
• the CoS byte
• the ToS byte
• the DSCP byte

I.53. What are two benefits of Private IPv4 Addresses? (Choose two.)

• they can be implemented without requiring admin to coordinate with IANA
• they are managed by IANA
• increase the flexibility of network design
• provide network isloation from the internet
• they are routable over internet

I.54. How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address?

• 32
• 48
• 64
• 128

I.55. What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model’s INTERNET layer?

• Application
• Session
• Data Link
• Presentation
• Network

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

The Internet Layer in TCP/IP Model is equivalent to the Network Layer of the OSI Model.

I.56. Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

• IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
• DHCP
• NHRP
• IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration
• ISATAP tunneling

I.57. How many usable host are there per subnet if you have the address of 192.168.10.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?

• 4
• 8
• 16
• 14

I.58. Which type of cable must you use to connect two devices with MDI interfaces?

• rolled
• crossover
• crossed
• straight through

I.59. Which type of IPv6 address also exists in IPv4 but is barely used?

• unicast
• multicast
• anycast
• broadcast

I.60. At which layer of the OSI model dose PPP perform?

• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 1

I.61. Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?

• Scan Timer.
• TTD.
• Flow Label.
• Hop Limit.
• Hop Count.

I.62. Which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?

• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
• 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128

I.63. Which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 subnet 255.255.255.252?

• 30
• 31
• 32
• 33

I.64. Which two functions can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.)

• assigning IP addresses to local clients
• copying updated IOS images to Cisco switches
• resolving names locally
• forwarding name resolution requests to an external DNS server
• transferring split horizon traffic between zones

I.65. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
• With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

I.66. Which two tasks does a router perform when it receives a packet that is being forwarded from one network to another? (Choose two.)

• It removes the Layer 2 frame header and trailer
• It encapsulates the Layer 2 packet
• It removes the Layer 3 frame header and trailer
• It examines the routing table for the best path to the destination IP address of the packet
• It examines the MAC address table for the forwarding interface

I.67. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that is uses on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.68. Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three)

• Session
• transport
• presentation
• application
• data-link
• network

I.69. When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?

• When you lack the proper to resolve the issue
• When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected
• When you have gathered all information about an issue
• When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min

I.70. Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?

• Class C
• Class B
• Class D
• Class A

I.71. Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?

• RFC 4193
• RFC 1519
• RFC 1518
• RFC 1918

I.72. Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?

• bus
• star
• mesh
• ring

I.73. Which statement about a router on a stick is true?

• Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches.
• It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same subnet
• It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.
• It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.

I.74. Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?

• administrative distance
• next hop
• metric
• routing protocol code

I.75. Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two)

• to enable intra-enterprise communication
• to implement NAT
• to connect applications
• to conserve global address space
• to manage routing overhead

I.76. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)

• 172.16.9.0
• 172.16.8.0
• 172.16.31.0
• 172.16.20.0

I.77. Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?

• ICANN
• APNIC
• RIR
• ISPs

I.78. Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the standard for computer networking?

• System network architecture
• Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol
• Open system Interconnect
• Open network architecture

I.79. Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.) 

• Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
• Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
• Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
• Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
• Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
• Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.

I.80. Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true ?

• They must be configured on all IPv6 interface
• They must be globally unique
• They must be manually configured
• They are advertised globally on the network

I.81. Which header field is new on IPv6?

• Version
• Hop Limit
• Flow Label
• Traffic Class

I.82. Which two statements about access points are true? (Choose Two)

• They can provide access within enterprises and to the public.
• in Most cases, they are physically connected to other network devices to provide network connectivity
• They can protect a network from internal and external threats.
• Most access points provide Wi-Fi and Bluetooth connectivity.
• They must be hardwired to a modem.

I.83. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

• Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
• Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
• Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
• There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
• If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

I.84. Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079::/64 are true? (Choose three)

• The subnet ID is 14920bf83d
• The subnet ID is 4079
• The global ID is 14920bf83d
• The address is a link-local address
• The global ID is 4079
• The address is a unique local address

I.85. Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an IPv6 address?

• Teredo
• 6to4
• 4to6
• GRE
• ISATAP

I.86. Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

• There are two broadcast domains in the network.
• There are four broadcast domains in the network.
• There are six broadcast domains in the network.
• There are four collision domains in the network.
• There are five collision domains in the network.
• There are seven collision domains in the network.

I.87. Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment?

• CLNS
• TCPv6
• NHRP
• NDP
• ARP

• /127
• /128
• /64
• /48
• /32

I.89. What are three features of the IPV6 protocol?(choose three)

• complicated header
• plug-and-play
• no broadcasts
• checksums
• optional IPsec
• autoconfiguration

I.90. Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

• application
• internet
• network
• transport

I.91. Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?

• FC00::/7
• FC00::/8
• FE80::/10
• FF00::/8

I.92. For which two reasons was RFC 1918 address space define (Choose two)

• to preserve public IPv4 address space
• to reduce the occurrence of overlapping IP addresses
• to preserve public IPv6 address space
• reduce the size of ISP routing tables
• to support the NAT protocol

I.93. In which two circumstances are private IPv4 addresses appropriate? (Choose two)

• on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources
• on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts
• on the public-facing interface of a firewall
• on hosts that require minimal access to external resources
• to allow hosts inside an enterprise to communicate in both directions with hosts  outside the enterprise

I.94. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the IEEE standard cable names from the left onto the correct cable types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.95. Which major IPv6 address type is supported in IPv4 but rarely used?

• Broadcast
• Anycast
• Unicast
• Multicast

I.96. Refer to the exhibit, you determine that Computer A cannot ping Computer. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?

• The Subnet mask for Computer A is incorrect.
• The default gateway address for Computer A is incorrect.
• The subnet mask for computer B is incorrect.
• The default gateway address for computer B is incorrect.

I.97. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

• 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
• 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
• FEC0:2927:1860:W067::2A4
• 2004:1:25A4:886F::1

I.98. Refer to the exhibit. A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?

• 192.168.1.56/27
• 192.168.1.64/26
• 192.168.1.64/27
• 192.168.1.56/26

I.99. DRAG DROP. A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based on the layered approach to troubleshooting and beginning with the lowest layer, drag each procedure on the left to its proper category on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.100. Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses?

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.248.0

I.101. Which two are features of IPv6?(choose two)

• multicast
• broadcast
• allcast
• podcast
• anycast

I.102. Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?

• 172.16.16.0
• 172.16.0.0
• 172.16.24.0
• 172.16.28.0

I.103. Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

• ::1
• ::
• 2000::/3
• 0::/10

I.104. You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?

• 10.188.31.0/26
• 10.188.31.0/25
• 10.188.31.0/25
• 10.188.31.0/27
• 10.188.31.0/29

I.105. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• internet
• data link

I.106. A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

• session
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical

I.107. Which two statements correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

• The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
• The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
• Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
• Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
• The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

I.108. Refer to the graphic. Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

• the MAC address of router interface e0
• the MAC address of router interface e1
• the MAC address of the server network interface
• the MAC address of host A

I.109. Refer to exhibit: Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

• the IP address of Switch 1
• the MAC address of Switch 1
• the IP address of Host C
• the MAC address of Host C
• the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
• the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface

I.110. At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

• physical
• data link
• network
• transport

I.111. What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?

• source MAC address
• source IP address
• source switch port
• destination IP address
• destination port address
• destination MAC address

I.112. Based on the network shown in the graphic. Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?

• routing loops, hold down timers
• switching loops, split horizon
• routing loops, split horizon
• switching loops, VTP
• routing loops, STP
• switching loops, STP

I.113. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator’s attempt to telnet to the switch from host fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

• The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.
• Host and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
• The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.
• The switch interface connected to the router is down.
• Host needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.

I.114. What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

• B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72
• B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72
• B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72
• B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72

I.115. Refer to the diagram. All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)

• The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192
• The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128
• The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
• The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
• The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
• The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.

I.116. The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)

• no broadcast
• change of source address in the IPv6 header
• change of destination address in the IPv6 header
• Telnet access does not require a password
• autoconfiguration
• NAT

I.117. An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?

Correct Answer: C

I.118. Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?

• 0.0.0.240
• 255.255.255.252
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240

I.119. How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

• 24
• 4
• 8
• 16

I.120. What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)

• enable dual-stack routing
• configure IPv6 directly
• configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
• use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
• statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
• use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

I.121. Refer to the exhibit. In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?

• 172.16.0.0 /16
• 172.16.0.0 /20
• 172.16.0.0 /24
• 172.32.0.0 /16
• 172.32.0.0 /17
• 172.64.0.0 /16

I.122. How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?

• by appending 0xFF to the MAC address
• by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE
• by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it
• by inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address
• by prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes

I.123. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

• 172.1.0.0/24
• 172.1.2.0/21
• 172.1.4.0/22
• 
• 

I.124. Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)

• one-to-many communication model
• one-to-nearest communication model
• any-to-many communication model
• a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
• the same address for multiple devices in the group
• delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

I.125. A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.248.0

I.126. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is adding two new hosts to Switch A . Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

• host A IP address: 192.168.1.79
• host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
• host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
• host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
• host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
• host B IP address: 192.168.1.190

I.127. Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?

• FF02::1
• FF02::2
• FF02::3
• FF02::4

I.128. Refer to the exhibit. Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?

• 172.16.0.0./21
• 172.16.0.0./20
• 172.16.0.0./16
• 172.16.0.0/18

I.129. Which IPv6 address is valid?

• 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
• 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
• 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
• 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

I.130. Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?

• ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
• ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
• ipv6 address PREFIX_1 ::1/64
• ipv6 autoconfig

I.131. Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?

• FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
• FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
• FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
• FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69

I.132. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?

• The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
• The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
• The maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
• The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
• The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
• The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

I.133. On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?

• a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
• a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
• a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
• a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

I.134. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server. Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?

• The network has not fully converged.
• IP routing is not enabled.
• A static route is configured incorrectly.
• The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.
• The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
• The routing table on Coffee has not updated.

I.135. Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

• Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
• Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
• Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
• Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
• Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
• Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

I.136. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about  this design?

• The design will function as intended
• Spanning-tree will need to be used
• The router will not accept the addressing scheme
• The connection between switches should be a trunk.
• The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

I.137. In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?

• during high traffic periods
• after broken links are re-established
• when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
• in an improperly implemented redundant topology
• when a dual ring topology is in use

I.138. The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)

• Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1
• Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254
• Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2
• Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2
• Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224
• Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240

I.139. Refer to the exhibit. A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?

• Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
• Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
• The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
• For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.

I.140. Refer to the exhibit. HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what is the cause of this problem?

• HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
• The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
• The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can’t be used.
• The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
• The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.

I.141. Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

• Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
• Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
• Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
• Ensure the switch has power.
• Reboot all of the devices.
• Reseat all cables.

I.142. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is the problem?

• The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.
• TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1
• The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
• The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.
• Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown.
• The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

I.143. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)

• The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
• Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
• Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
• The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
• Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
• The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA

I.144. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?

• data link layer
• application layer
• access layer
• session layer
• network layer

I.145. Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

• Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
• Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
• Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
• Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
• Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
• Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

I.146. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

• 252
• 253
• 254
• 255

I.147. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

I.148. The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?

• 10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
• 10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
• 10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
• 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
• 10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

I.149. Which of the following IP addresses fall into the CIDR block of 115.64.4.0/22? (Choose three.)

• 115.64.8.32
• 115.64.7.64
• 115.64.6.255
• 115.64.3.255
• 115.64.5.128
• 115.64.12.128

I.150. Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three.)

• buffering
• cut-through
• windowing
• congestion avoidance
• load balancing

I.151. Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to connect to an access point that has SSID broadcasting disabled?

• Set the SSID value in the client software to public.
• Configure open authentication on the AP and the client.
• Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP.
• Configured MAC address filtering to permit the client to connect to the AP.

I.152. What is one reason that WPA encryption is preferred over WEP?

• A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key.
• The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values.
• WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed.
• The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.

I.153. As a CCNA candidate, you must have a firm understanding of the IPv6 address structure. Refer to IPv6 address, could you tell me how many bits are included in each filed?

• 24
• 4
• 3
• 16

I.154. While troubleshooting a connectivity issue from a PC you obtain the following information:

What is the underlying cause of this problem?

• A remote physical layer problem exists.
• The host NIC is not functioning.
• TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.
• A local physical layer problem exists.

I.155. Which name describes an IPV6 host-enable tunneling technique that uses IPV4 UDP,does not require dedicated gateway tunnels,and can pass through existing IPV4 NAT gateways?

• dual stack
• dynamic
• Teredo
• Manual 6to4

I.156. What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two.)

• decreasing the number of collision domains
• filtering frames based on MAC addresses
• allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
• increasing the size of broadcast domains
• increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

I.157. What are two security appliances that can be installed in a network? (Choose two.)

• ATM
• IDS
• IOS
• IOX
• IPS
• SDM

I.158. A network administrator is planning a network installation for a large organization. The design requires 100 separate subnetworks, so the company has acquired a Class B network address. What subnet mask will provide the 100 subnetworks required, if 500 usable host addresses are required per subnet?

• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192

I.159. Which of the following services use UDP? (Choose three.)

• Telnet
• TFTP
• SNMP
• DNS
• SMTP
• HTTP

I.160. Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by a smaller number of public IP addresses?

• NAT
• NTP
• RFC 1631
• RFC 1918

I.161. What are three broadband wireless technologies? (Choose three)

• WiMax
• satellite Internet
• municipal Wi-Fi
• site-to-site VPN
• DSLAM
• CMTS

I.162. In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three)

• Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
• IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
• IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
• IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
• IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
• IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

The IPv4 and IPv6 headers are shown below for your comparison:

IPv6 Header fields

IPv6 eliminates the Header Checksum field, which handles error checking in IPv4. IPv6 depends on reliable transmission in the data link protocols and on error checking in upper-layer protocols instead -> Answer C is correct.

While IPv4 header’s total length comprises a minimum of 20 octets (8 bits per octet), IPv6 header has only 8 fields with a fixed length of 40 octets -> Answer A is correct.

IPv4 header does not have a fixed length because of the Options fields. This field is used to convey additional information on the packet or on the way it should be processed. Routers, unless instructed otherwise, must process the Options in the IPv4 header. The processing of most header options pushes the packet into the slow path leading to a forwarding performance hit.

IPv4 Options perform a very important role in the IP protocol operation therefore the capability had to be preserved in IPv6. However, the impact of IPv4 Options on performance was taken into consideration in the development of IPv6. The functionality of Options is removed from the main header and implemented through a set of additional headers called extension headers. The “Next Header” field in IPv6 can be used to point to the extension headers.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk648/tk872/technologies_white_paper0900aecd8054d37d.html

I.163. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

• outside public
• inside local
• inside global
• inside public
• outside global
• outside local

I.164. Which command can you enter to display the hits counter for NAT traffic?

• show ip nat statistics
• debug ip nat
• show ip debug nat
• clear ip nat statistics

I.165. What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?

• Define inside and outside interfaces
• Define public and private IP addresses
• Define IP address pools
• Define global and local interfaces

I.166. What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?

• Ping the loopback address.
• Ping the default gateway.
• Ping the local interface address.
• Ping the remote network.

I.167. If host Z needs to send data through router R1 to a storage server, which destination MAC address does host Z use to transmit packets?

• the host Z MAC address
• the MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to the storage server
• the MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to host Z
• the MAC address of the storage server interface

I.168. While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping from one VLAN to another VLAN on the same switch failed. Which command verifies that IP routing is enabled on interfaces and the local VLANs are up?

• show ip interface brief
• show ip nat statistics
• show ip statistics
• show ip route

I.169. Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT?

• when the network must route UDP traffic
• when traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts
• when traffic that originates inside the network must be routed to internal hosts
• when the network has few public IP addresses and many private IP addresses require outside access

I.170. When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is received from one network and destined to another, which portion of the packet does if replace?

• Layer 2 frame header and trailer
• Layer 3 IP address
• Layer 5 session
• Layer 4 protocol

I.171. On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?

• a router
• a Layer 2 switch
• a hub

I.172. What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?

• An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
• An IPv4 address must be configured.
• Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
• IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.

I.173. Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?

• 172.20.1.0
• 127.0.0.1
• 192.168.0.119
• 239.255.0.1

I.174. Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?

• 1500
• 9216
• 1600
• 1518

I.175. DRAG DROP. Drag the terms on the left onto the appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.176. SIMULATION

A network associate is configuring a router for the Weaver company to provide internet access. The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.18.184.105 – 198.18.184.110. The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously. The hosts in the company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of 192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30.

The following have already been configured on the router:
The basic router configuration
The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside
The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will
be a stub network, no routing protocol will be required.)
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”
The task is to complete the NAT configuration using all IP addresses assigned by the ISP to provide internet
access for the hosts in the weaver LAN. Functionality can be tested by clicking on the host provided for
testing.
Configuration information:

Correct Answer: See Explanation
Section: Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Step 1: Router Name

Step 2: NAT Configuration

Step 3: Save Configuration
Weaver#copy run start
Verification:
We can verify the answer by pinging the ISP IP Address (192.0.2.114) from Host for testing.
Click “Host for testing”
In command prompt, type “ping 192.0.2.114”. If ping succeeded, then the NAT is working properly.
Screen Shots:

I.177. Instructions

This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by clicking on the corresponding button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by clicking the numbers to the left question. In order to complete the questions, you will need to refer to the topology.

To gain access to the topology, click on the topology button of the screen. When you have finished viewing the topology, you can return to your questions by clicking on the Questions button to the left.

Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar.
Scenario

Refer to the topology. The diagram represents a small network with a single connection to the Internet.

If the router R1 has a packet with a destination address 192.168.1.255, what describes the operation of the network?

• R1 will forward the packet out all interfaces.
• R1 will drop this packet because this it is not a valid IP address.
• As R1 forwards the frame containing this packet, Sw-A will add 192.168.1.255 to its MAC table.
• R1 will encapsulate the packet in a frame with a destination MAC address of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.
• As R1 forwards the frame containing this packet, Sw-A will forward it to the device assigned the IP address of 192.168.1.255.

I.178. Instructions

This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by clicking on the corresponding button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by clicking the numbers to the left question. In order to complete the questions, you will need to refer to the topology.

To gain access to the topology, click on the topology button of the screen. When you have finished viewing the topology, you can return to your questions by clicking on the Questions button to the left.

Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar.

Scenario

Refer to the topology. The diagram represents a small network with a single connection to the Internet.

Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 network must access files located on the Server 1. What route could be configured on router R1 for file requests to reach the server?

• ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s/0/0/0
• ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.265.200.226
• ip route 209.165.200.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.250
• ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 209.165.100.250

I.179. Instructions

This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by clicking on the corresponding button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by clicking the numbers to the left question. In order to complete the questions, you will need to refer to the topology.

To gain access to the topology, click on the topology button of the screen. When you have finished viewing the topology, you can return to your questions by clicking on the Questions button to the left.

Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging itby the title bar.

Scenario

Refer to the topology. The diagram represents a small network with a single connection to the Internet.

When a packet is sent from Host 1 to Server 1, in how many different frames will the packet be encapsulated as it is sent across the internetwork?

• 0
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4

I.180. Instructions

This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by clicking on the corresponding button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by clicking the numbers to the left question. In order to complete the questions, you will need to refer to the topology.

To gain access to the topology, click on the topology button of the screen. When you have finished viewing the topology, you can return to your questions by clicking on the Questions button to the left.Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar.

Scenario

Refer to the topology. The diagram represents a small network with a single connection to the Internet.

What must be configured on the network on order for users on the Internet to view web pages located on Web
Server 2?

• • On Router R2, configure a default static route to the 192.168.1.0 network
  • On router R2, configure DNS to resolve the URL assigned to Web Server 2 to the 192.168.1.10 address.
  • On router R1, configure NAT to translate an address on the 209.165.100.0/24 network to 192.168.1.10.
  • On router R1, configure DHCP to assign a registered IP address on the 209.165.100.0/24 network to Web

Server 2.

I.181. Instructions

This item contains several questions that you must answer. You can view these questions by clicking on the corresponding button to the left. Changing questions can be accomplished by clicking the numbers to the left question. In order to complete the questions, you will need to refer to the topology.

To gain access to the topology, click on the topology button of the screen. When you have finished viewing the topology, you can return to your questions by clicking on the Questions button to the left.Each of the windows can be minimized by clicking on the [-]. You can also reposition a window by dragging it by the title bar.

Scenario

Refer to the topology. The diagram represents a small network with a single connection to the Internet.

The router address 192.168.1.250 is the default gateway for both the Web Server 2 and Host 1. What is the correct subnet mask for this network?

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.250
• 255.255.255.252

Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference

1. Based on the information provided in the exhibit, we know that the IP address of the interface Fa0/0 is 192.168.1.250/24, that is to say the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0??
2. When configuring the correct IP address and not wasting IP address, the network of 192.168.1.0 needs to contain the following three IP addresses of interfaces:

The correct mask is 255.255.255.0.

I.182. Which type of broadcast barely used in IPv4 which also exist in IPv6 like?

• unicast
• multicast
• broadcast
• anycast

I.183. Which type of cable must you use to connect to device with mdi interfaces?

• rolled
• crossover
• crossed
• straight through

I.184. DRAG DROP. Refer to the exhibit.

You are configuring the router to provide Static NAT for the web server.
Drag and drop the configuration commands from left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the
configuration on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.185. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop each cable type from the left onto the type of connection for which it is best suited on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.186. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the characteristics of a cloud environment from the left onto the correct examples on the right

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.187. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not alloptions are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.188. Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

• There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
• A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
• Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
• The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
• Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

I.189. What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?

• NIC
• BIA
• OUI
• VAI

I.190. What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

• A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line.
• A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line.
• A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line.
• A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line.

I.191. Which two statements about EUI-64 addressing are true? (Choose two.)

• The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the last 24 bits of the interface MAC address.
• The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 24 bits of the interface MAC address
• A 64-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address.
• A locally administrated address has the universal/local bit set to 0.
• A 96-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address.
• The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 14 bits of the interface MAC address.

I.192. DRAG DROP. Drag and Drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the correct IP traffic types on
the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.193. DRAG DROP. Drag each category on the left to its corresponding router output line on the right. Each router output line is in
the result of a show ip interface command. Not all categories are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.194. Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)

• It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
• It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
• It is bandwidth-intensive.
• It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
• It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.

I.195. Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)

• They use ICMPv6 type 134.
• The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
• The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
• They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
• Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.

I.196. Which three technical services support cloud computing?

• network-monitored power sources
• layer 3 network routing
• ip localization
• redundant connections
• VPN connectivity
• extended SAN services

I.197. Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?

• Cisco OpenDaylight
• Cisco ACI
• Cisco APIC
• Cisco IWAN

I.198. What are the three major components of cisco network virtualization? (Choose Three)

• network access control
• path isolation
• virtual network services
• policy enforcement

I.199. Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4 network?

• interface ip address verification
• MAC address table verification
• neighbor discovery verification
• Routing table entry verification

I.200. When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configuration checks you
must perform?

• Verify that the router interface IP address is correct.
• Verify that the DNS is configured correctly.
• Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.
• Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.
• Verify that a default route is configured.
• Verify that the route appears in the Routing table

I.201. Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across the internet?

• Unique Local
• Compatible
• Link local
• Global

I.202. Which two statements about IPv6 address 2002:ab10:beef::/48 are true?(choose two)

• The embedded IPv4 address can be globally routed.
• It is used for an ISATAP tunnel
• The embedded IPv4 address is an RFC 1918 address
• The MAC address 20:02:b0:10:be:ef is embedded into the IPv6 address
• It is used for a 6to4 tunnel

I.203. Which three functions are major components of a network virtualization architecture? (Choose three.)

• virtual network services
• policy enforcement
• network access control
• network resilienceE. authentication services
• path isolation

I.204. Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

• reduces routing table entries
• auto-negotiation of media rates
• efficient utilization of MAC addresses
• dedicated communications between devices
• ease of management and troubleshooting

I.205. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default configuration. Which two destination addresses will host 4 use to send data to host 1? (Choose two.)

• the IP address of host 1
• the IP address of host 4
• the MAC address of host 1
• the MAC address of host 4
• the MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of the R1 router
• the MAC address of the Fa0/1 interface of the R1 router

I.206. Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

• DNS
• DHCPv6
• DHCP
• autoconfiguration

I.207. Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?

• traceroute
• telnet
• ping
• show ipv6

I.208. Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?

• access point
• switch
• wireless controller
• firewall

I.209. A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

• More collision domains will be created.
• IP address utilization will be more efficient.
• More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
• An additional broadcast domain will be created.

I.210. When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues, how can you verify that an IP address is known to a router?

• Check whether the IP address is in the routing table
• Check whether an ACL is blocking the IP address
• Check whether the IP address is in the CAM table
• Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table

I.211. Which two statements about the tunnel mode ipv6ip command are true? (Choose two.)

• It enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel.
• It specifies IPv4 as the encapsulation protocol.
• It specifies IPv6 as the encapsulation protocol.
• It specifies IPv6 as the transport protocol.
• It specifies that the tunnel is a Teredo tunnel.

R1(config)#int tunnel 1
R1(config-if)#ipv6 address 1cde:7ea:348:1::3/127
R1(config-if)#tunnel source 10.1.1.1
R1(config-if)#tunnel destination 10.1.1.2
R1(config-if)#tunnel mode ipv6ip

I.212. Which configuration can you apply to enable encapsulation on a subinterface?

• interface FastEthernet 0/0
  encapsulation dot1Q 30
  ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
• interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
  ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0
• interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
  description subinterface vlan 30
• interface FastEthernet 0/0.30
  encapsulation dot1Q 30
  ip address 10.1.1.30 255.255.255.0

Router(config)#interface f0/0
Router(config-if)#no shutdown

(Note: The main interface f0/0 doesn’t need an IP address but it must be turned on)

Router(config)#interface f0/0.0
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 10
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-subif)#interface f0/0.1
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1q 20
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

I.213. What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the range of an 802.11g access point?

• The access point transmits, but the node is unable to receive.
• A connection occurs.
• Both the node and the access point are unable to transmit.
• The node transmits, but the access point is unable to receive.

I.214. A network administrator receives an error message while trying to configure the Ethernet interface of a router with IP address 10.24.24.24/29. Which statement explains the reason for this issue?

• This address is a broadcast address.
• VLSM-capable routing protocols must be enabled first on the router.
• The Ethernet interface is faulty.
• This address is a network address.

I.215. DRAG DROP. Drag and drop the networking features of functions from the left onto the planes on which they operate on the
right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

I.216. Which two statements about 1000BASE-T UTP cable are true? (Choose two.)

• It uses four wire pairs
• It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 feet in length
• It is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 meters in length
• Both ends of the cable can transmit and receive simultaneously
• It uses four wires

I.217. Which two statements about IPv6 multicast addresses are true? (Choose two.)

• They use the prefix FC80::/8
• If the lifetime parameter is set to 1, the route is permanent
• They identify a group of interfaces on different devices
• They use the prefix FF00::/8
• If the scope parameter is set to 5, the route is local to the node

I.218. Which command can you enter on a Cisco IOS device to enable a scheduled algorithm that directs lookup calls to multiple DNS hosts?

• ip name-server 192.168.10.14 192.168.10.15
• ip domain list
• ip domain lookup
• ip domain round-robin

I.219. Which three elements are field in a basic Ethernet data frame? (Choose three.)

• Preamble
• Frame Check Sequence
• Header Checksum
• Length/Type
• Time to Live
• Version

I.220. Which prompt does a Cisco switch display when it is running in privileged exec mode?

• switch#
• switch(config)#
• switch(config-if)#
• switch>

I.221. Empty….

I.222. Which benefit of implementing a dual-homed WAN connection instead of a single-homed connection is true?

• Only dual-homed connections support recursive routing
• Only dual-homed connections enable an individual router to tolerate the loss of a network link
• Only dual-homed connections support split horizon with EIGRP
• Only dual-homed connections support OSPF in conjunction with BGP