IT Essentials (ITE v6.0) Chapter 6 Exam Answers 100% 2019

IT Essentials (ITE v6.0) Chapter 6 Exam Answers 100% 2019
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  1. What would be a reason for a computer user to use the Task Manager Performance tab?
    • to increase the performance of the CPU
    • to view the processes that are running and end a process if needed
    • to view the services that are currently running on the PC
    • to check the CPU usage of the PC *
  2. Which feature in Windows 7 and 8 allows a user to temporarily view the desktop that is behind open windows by moving the mouse over the right edge of the taskbar?
    • Peek*
    • Snap
    • Shake
    • Search
    • jump lists
    • thumbnail previews
  3. What is the minimum amount of RAM and hard drive space required to install 64-bit Windows 8 on a PC?
    • 1 GB RAM and 10 GB hard disk space
    • 1 GB RAM and 16 GB hard disk space
    • 2 GB RAM and 16 GB hard disk space
    • 2 GB RAM and 20 GB hard disk space*
    • 4 GB RAM and 16 GB hard disk space
    • 4 GB RAM and 20 GB hard disk space
  4. After upgrading a computer to Windows 7, a user notices that the UAC (User Account Control) panel appears more frequently. How can the user reduce the frequency with which the UAC appears?
    • Reinstall all user programs in Compatibility Mode.
    • Replace the graphics card with one that meets the minimum hardware requirements for Windows 7.
    • Lower the UAC setting in the Change User Account Control settings dialog box of the User Accounts control panel.*
    • In the Performance Options dialog box of the Performance Information and Tools control panel, choose Adjust for Best Performance.
  5. Which Windows utility allows Windows 7 and 8 users to quickly and easily share files and folders?
    • HomeGroup*
    • Action Center
    • Services
    • Device Manager
  6. Which Windows administrative tool displays the usage of a number of computer resources simultaneously and can help a technician decide if an upgrade is needed?
    • Services
    • Event Viewer
    • Component Services
    • Performance Monitor *
  7. Which type of startup must be selected for a service that should run each time the computer is booted?
    • automatic*
    • boot
    • manual
    • start
    • startup
  8. Which Windows tool allows an administrator to organize computer management tools in one location for convenient use?
    • Task Scheduler
    • Services console
    • Performance Monitor console
    • Microsoft Management console *
  9. To which category of hypervisor does the Microsoft Virtual PC belong?
    • Type 1
    • Type 2*
    • Type 3
    • Type 4
  10. What are two advantages of using PC virtualization? (Choose two.)
    • It protects the host machine from viruses attacks.
    • It allows multiple operating systems to run on a single PC simultaneously.*
    • It boosts the performance of the host machine through virtualization.
    • It can provide cost savings.*
    • It allows network threat identification.
  11. A college uses virtualization technology to deploy information security courses. Some of the lab exercises involve studying the characteristics of computer viruses and worms. What is an advantage of conducting the lab exercises inside the virtualized environment as opposed to using actual PCs?
    • The lab exercises are performed faster inside of the virtualized environment.
    • The virtualization environment has better tools to develop mitigation solutions.
    • Virus and worm attacks are more easily controlled in a virtualized environment, thus helping to protect the college network and its devices from attack.*
    • The viruses and worms will have limited functionality inside the virtualized environment.
  12. A software engineer is involved in the development of an application. For usability tests, the engineer needs to make sure that the application will work in both Windows 7 and Windows 8 environments. The features and functions must be verified in the actual OS environment. The engineer is using a Windows 7 workstation. What two technologies can help the engineer achieve the usability tests? (Choose two.)
    • dual boot*
    • two separate CPUs
    • storage redundancy
    • client-side virtualization*
    • two separate hard disks
  13. A technician needs to use an application that is not supported by Windows operating systems on the PC. How can the technician make this application run on the PC?
    • Use the Windows Compatibility mode.
    • Install the application with elevated permissions as administrator.
    • Create a virtual machine with an operating system that supports the application.*
    • Install the application in safe mode.
  14. What preventive maintenance action should be taken to help improve system security?
    • Automate any antivirus scanners.*
    • Defragment the hard drive.
    • Perform backups regularly.
    • Error check the hard drive.
  15. Which Windows 7 feature would an administrator use to configure a computer to delete temporary files from the hard drive at 3:00 AM each day?
    • Disk Cleanup
    • Task Scheduler*
    • Device Manager
    • Computer Management
  16. Which command is used from the Windows command prompt to schedule a program to run at a specific time?
    • AT*
    • CMD
    • TASKLIST
    • TASKKILL
  17. When troubleshooting a printer problem, a technician finds that the operating system was automatically updated with a corrupt device driver. Which solution would resolve this issue?
    • Roll back the driver.*
    • Restart both the computer and the printer.
    • Scan the downloaded driver file with a virus scanner.
    • Upload the correct driver to the printer.
  18. Which two Windows utilities can be used to help maintain hard disks on computers that have had long periods of normal use? (Choose two.)
    • Disk Cleanup*
    • Disk Maintenance
    • Disk Defragmenter*
    • Disk Partition
    • Disk Format
  19. What is a common step that a technician can take to determine the cause of an operating system problem?
    • Boot into Safe Mode to determine if the problem is driver related.*
    • Test the power supply.
    • Document the time spent to resolve the problem.
    • Check the fan connections and ensure the fan is working properly.
  20. Which question is an open ended question that could be used when helping a customer troubleshoot a Windows problem?
    • Can you boot the operating system?
    • Have you changed your password recently?
    • Do you get a login prompt when the computer boots?
    • What programs have you installed recently? *
  21. A user reports that logging into the workstation fails after a display driver has been updated. The user insists that the password is typed in correctly. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
    • The password has changed.
    • The Caps Lock key is set to on.*
    • A display driver update failed.
    • The display setting has changed after a driver update.
  22. A user reports that a video editing program does not work properly after a sound mixing program is installed. The technician suspects that a compatibility issue might be the cause of the problem. What should the technician do to verify this theory?”
    • Update Windows OS.
    • Update the video editing software.
    • Uninstall the sound mixing software.*
    • Check if an update of the sound mixing software is available.
  23. A user reports to a technician that his computer freezes without any error messages. What are two probable causes? (Choose two.)
    • An update has corrupted the operating system.*
    • A process is not using enough system resources.
    • The power supply is failing.*
    • The MBR is corrupted.
    • The boot order is not set correctly in BIOS.
  24. A technician is trying to fix a Windows 7 computer that displays an “Invalid Boot Disk” error after POST. What is a possible cause of the error?
    • The boot.ini file is corrupt.
    • The ntldr.exe file is corrupt.
    • The ntdetect.com file is corrupt.
    • The boot order is not set correctly in the BIOS.*

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  25. Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address that is contained in the frame?
    • repeater
    • hub
    • switch*
    • router
  26. A customer is considering a multipurpose device to create a home network. Which three devices are usually integrated into a multipurpose network device? (Choose three.)
    • email server
    • router*
    • switch*
    • web server
    • wireless access point*
    • print server
  27. Which technology would be recommended for a business that requires workers to access the Internet while visiting customers at many different locations?
    • ADSL
    • VPN
    • cellular*
    • ISDN
  28. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an Internet provider?
    • when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
    • when a digital connection is provided using ISDN
    • when a regular telephone line is used*
    • when a cellular telephone provides the service
  29. Which type of connection to the Internet is capable of the fastest transfer rates?
    • ISDN BRI
    • dial-up
    • ISDN PRI
    • cable*
  30. Which statement describes the logical topology for a LAN?
    • It describes how computers access the LAN medium.*
    • It depicts the locations of main routers and switches in a LAN.
    • It lists the number of computers, routers, and switches on the LAN.
    • It defines how computers connect to a LAN.
  31. ABC Company requires preventive maintenance for all local network cabling once a year. Which task should be included in the preventive maintenance program?
    • Replace all labeling on the cables.
    • Replace all cable supports to prevent loose attachment points.
    • Disconnect and reconnect all patch cables.
    • Inspect all patch cables for breaks.*
  32. What is an example of network maintenance?
    • immediately turning off a network device if the network device is making an unusual sound
    • educating users on IT policies and procedures*
    • using cable supports to identify the devices to which the cables are connected
    • not doing preventive maintenance regularly if the maintenance interrupts network activity
  33. A technician is troubleshooting a problem where the user claims access to the Internet is not working, but there was access to the Internet the day before. Upon investigation, the technician determines that the user cannot access the network printer in the office either. The network printer is on the same network as the computer. The computer has 169.254.100.88 assigned as an IP address. What is the most likely problem?
    • The router that connects this network to other networks is down.
    • The network interface card driver needs to be updated.
    • The IP default gateway on the computer is incorrect.
    • The computer cannot communicate with a DHCP server.*
  34. Which technology is most often used to connect devices to a PAN?
    • Bluetooth*
    • IEEE 802.11n wireless
    • fiber optic cabling
    • coaxial cabling
  35. Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
    • data link
    • application*
    • network
    • transport
    • physical
    • session*
    • presentation*
  36. A device has an IPv6 address listed as 2001:0DB8:75a3:0214:0607:1234:aa10:ba01. What is the interface ID of the device?
    • ba01
    • 0607:1234:aa10:ba01*
    • 2001:0DB8:75a3
    • 2001:0DB8
  37. What is a characteristic of the UDP protocol?
    • low overhead*
    • error correction
    • guaranteed delivery
    • end-to-end establishment before delivery
  38. What would be a disadvantage of configuring a wireless router or access point to operate only in accordance with the 802.11g protocol standard?
    • 802.11a wireless devices will not be able to connect to the wireless network.*
    • The 802.11g standard does not support static IP addressing.
    • The 802.11g standard does not support advanced network security features.
    • Using only 802.11g will cause multiple SSIDs to be broadcast.
  39. What is the maximum segment length that is specified by the 1000BASE-T standard?
    • 1640 ft (500 m)
    • 984 ft (300 m)
    • 328 ft (100 m)*
    • 3280 ft (1000 m)
    • 607 ft (185 m)
  40. Which two characteristics describe Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
    • It is supported by IEEE 802.3 standards.*
    • It is supported by IEEE 802.5 standards.
    • It typically uses an average of 16 Mb/s for data transfer rates.
    • It uses a ring topology.
    • It uses the CSMA/CD access control method.*
  41. Which three factors are reasons for a company to choose a client/server model for a network instead of peer-to-peer? (Choose three.)
    • The company network requires secure access to confidential information.*
    • Each user understands how to safely share files across a network.
    • All employees passed a strict background check as part of the corporate hiring practices.
    • The data gathered by the employees is critical and should be backed up on a regular basis.*
    • The network is small with fewer than eight users.
    • The users need a central database to store inventory and sales information.*
  42. What benefit is provided by a computer data network?
    • increased security
    • decentralized administration
    • resource sharing*
    • simplified troubleshooting
  43. When would a printer be considered a network host?
    • when it is connected to a workstation
    • when it is connected to a laptop
    • when it is connected to a switch*
    • when it is connected to a PC
  44. A user can print to a printer that is on the same network, but the traffic of the user cannot reach the Internet. What is a possible cause of the problem?
    • The PC default gateway address is missing or incorrect.*
    • The NIC on the PC is faulty.
    • The PC has an incorrect IP address.
    • The network cable connected to the user PC is faulty.
  45. What is identified by the 100 in the 100BASE-TX standard?
    • the maximum cable distance in meters
    • the series number of the standard
    • the maximum number of network nodes
    • the maximum bandwidth in Mb/s*
  46. A user installs a new gigabit NIC in a PC. The user notices that the data transfer rate is much slower than expected. What should the user do to fix the problem?
    • Change the NIC duplex setting from half duplex to full duplex.*
    • Disable sleep mode.
    • Disable hibernation mode.
    • Change the value assigned to the NIC wake-on-LAN setting.
  47. A company adds a few refurbished computers to a network. The company finds, however, that the refurbished computers perform significantly worse than the original networked computers do. The original computers performed much faster with applications that required the transfer of data over the network. What should the company technicians do?
    • Check if the refurbished computers are using a VPN.
    • Check if the network interface cards in the refurbished computers are limited to 10 Mb/s.*
    • Check if subnet mask is correct.
    • Check if the gateway address is correct.
  48. A user notices that the data transfer rate for the gigabit NIC in the user computer is much slower than expected. What is a possible cause for the problem?
    • The NIC is configured to use both IPv4 and IPv6 at the same time.
    • The NIC duplex settings have somehow been set to half-duplex.*
    • The NIC wake-on-LAN setting is misconfigured.
    • Hibernation mode is causing the NIC to shutdown unexpectedly.

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