[PART 7] CCNA 200-125 Dumps Questions and Answers Latest (VCE + PDF)

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421. Which RPVST+ port state is excluded from all STP operations?

  • learning
  • forwarding
  • blocking
  • disabled*

422. Which command can you enter to block HTTPS traffic from the whole class A private network range to a host?

  • R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp eq 443
  • R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp eq 53
  • R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp eq 53
  • R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp eq 443*

423. When is a routing table entry identified as directly connected?

  • when the local router is in use as the network default gateway
  • when the network resides on a remote router that is physically connected to the local router
  • when an interface on the router is configure with an ip address and enabled*
  • when the route is statically assigned to reach a specific network

424. Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?

  • FC00::/7
  • FC00::/8
  • FE80::/10*
  • FF00::/8
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local subnetwork (automatic address configuration, neighbor discovery, router discovery, and by many routing protocols). It is only valid on the current subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on 48-bit MAC address).

425. Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChannel ?

  • PAgP
  • LACP*
  • Cisco Discovery Protocol
  • DTP
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
LACP is the IEEE Standard (IEEE 802.3ad) and is the most common dynamic Etherchannel protocol, whereas PAgP is a Cisco proprietary protocol and works only between supported vendors and Cisco devices.

426. For which two reasons was RFC 1918 address space define (Choose two)

  • to preserve public IPv4 address space*
  • to reduce the occurrence of overlapping IP addresses*
  • to preserve public IPv6 address space
  • reduce the size of ISP routing tables
  • to support the NAT protocol
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
The RFC 1518 is Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR). CIDR is a mechanism developed to help alleviate the problem of exhaustion of IP addresses and growth of routing tables.

The problems were:

+ With the classful routing system, individual networks were either limited to 254 hosts (/24) or 65,534 hosts (/16). For many network enterprises, 254 hosts were not enough and 65,534 were too large to be used efficiently.
+ Routing information overload. The size and rate of growth of the routing tables in Internet routers is beyond the ability of current software (and people) to effectively manage.
+ Eventual exhaustion of IP network numbers.

To solve these problem, CIDR was selected as the solution in 1992.

In contrast to classful routing, which categorizes addresses into one of three blocks, CIDR allows for blocks of IP addresses to be allocated to Internet service providers. The blocks are then split up and assigned to the provider’s customers.

According to the CIDR standard, the first part of an IP address is a prefix, which identifies the network. The prefix is followed by the host identifier so that information packets can be sent to particular computers within the network. A CIDR address includes the standard 32-bit IP address and also the network prefix. For example, a CIDR address of, the “/26” indicates the first 26 bits are used to identify the unique network, leaving the remaining bits to identify the specific hosts.

Therefore, instead of assigning the whole block of a class B or C address, now smaller blocks of a class can be assigned. For example, instead of assigning a whole block of, a smaller block, like or, can be assigned.

427. Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two)

  • It must be manually enabled after RIP is configured as the routing protocol*
  • It uses multicast address to share routing information between peers
  • its default administrative distances 120*
  • It is a link-state routing protocol
  • It is an EGP routing protocol

428. In which CLI configuration mode can you configure the hostname of a device?

  • line mode
  • interface mode
  • global mode*
  • router mode

429. In which two circumstances are private IPv4 addresses appropriate? (Choose two)

  • on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources
  • on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts*
  • on the public-facing interface of a firewall
  • on hosts that require minimal access to external resources*
  • to allow hosts inside an enterprise to communicate in both directions with hosts  outside the enterprise

430. Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two)

  • The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems*
  • Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device*
  • They can be created dynamically after the network statement is con-figured.
  • The two devices must reside in the same autonomous system
  • The two devices must have matching timer settings

431. Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs? (Choose two)

  • device management address.*
  • device type*
  • spanning-tree topology
  • routing configuration
  • access-list configuration

432. Which two statements about UDP are true? (Choose two)

  • It can transmit data at a rate higher than the path capacity*
  • It uses a three-way handshake to ensure that traffic is transmitted properly
  • It guarantees packet delivery
  • it includes protection against duplicate packets
  • it can be used for multicast and broadcast traffic*

433. Which two statements about access points are true? (Choose Two)

  • They can provide access within enterprises and to the public.
  • in Most cases, they are physically connected to other network devices to provide network connectivity*
  • They can protect a network from internal and external threats.
  • Most access points provide Wi-Fi and Bluetooth connectivity.*
  • They must be hardwired to a modem.

434. For which two protocols can PortFast alleviate potential host startup is-sues? (Choose two.)

  • DHCP*
  • DNS*
  • OSPF
  • RIP
  • CDP

435. What does it take for BGP to establish connection. (Choose two)

  • Enable cdp
  • AS number on local router*
  • AS number on remote router*
  • IGP
  • EGP

436. On which layer tcp/ip is ACL Apic-EM path

  • Layer 1
  • Layer 2
  • Layer 3
  • Layer 4*

437. Which cloud service is typically used to provide DNS and DHCP services to an enterprise?

  • IaaS
  • DaaS
  • SaaS*
  • PaaS

438. Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)

  • Utilizing Syslog improves network performance
  • The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems
  • A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space*
  • There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages.*
  • Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping
  • A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.*

439. What are the two statements about EUI-64 addressing? (Choose two)

  • A locally administrated address has the universal/local bit set to 0.*
  • A 64-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address
  • A 96-bit interface identifier is derived from the interface MAC address
  • The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the first 24 bits of the interface MAC address*
  • The address includes the hex digits FFFE after the last 24 bits of the interface MAC address
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI) allows a host to assign itself a unique 64-Bit IPv6 interface identifier (EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The MAC address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the an EUI-48 MAC address.

For example, suppose we have the MAC address of C601.420F.0007. It would be divided into two 24-bit parts, which are “C60142” (OUI) and “0F0007” (NIC). Then “FFFE” is inserted in the middle. Therefore we have the address: C601.42FF.FE0F.0007.

Then, according to the RFC 3513 we need to invert the Universal/Local bit (“U/L” bit) in the 7th position of the first octet. The “u” bit is set to 1 to indicate Universal, and it is set to zero (0) to indicate local scope.

Therefore with the subnet of 2001:DB8:0:1::/64, the full IPv6 address is 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

440. After you configure the ip dns spoofing command globally on a device,under which two conditions is DNS spoofing enabled on the device?(choose two)

  • The DNS server queue limit id disabled
  • The ip host command is disabled
  • All configured IP name server addresses are removed*
  • The ip dns spoofing command is disabled on the local interface
  • The no ip domain lookup command is configured*

441. which task must you perform to enable an IOS device to use DNS services?

  • configure a relay agent information reforwarding policy
  • configure manual bindings*
  • configure the relay agent information option
  • configure a name server

442. Which two IP SLA operations can you use to measure the end-to-end response time for all IP traffic between a Cisco router and an end device ?(choose two)

  • A. ICMP path echo*
  • B. UDP echo
  • C. ICMP path jitter
  • D. UDP jitter
  • E. TCP connect
  • F. ICMP echo*
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
To measure end-to-end reponse time we have to use ICMP echo to continuously ping to a remote device. The difference between ICMP path echo and ICMP echo is the former can measure hop-by-hop response time on its whole path while the latter can only measure to a specific destination.

443. What authentication type is used by SNMPv2 ?

  • username and password
  • community strings*
  • HMAC-MD5

444. Which MAC protocol sets a random timer to reattempt communication ?

  • RARP
  • CSMA/CD*
  • IEEE 802.1x

445. While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue,show interface command output displays tunnel status up,but line protocol is down.
Which reason for this problem is most likely ?

  • The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself*
  • The next hop server is misconfigured
  • The interface has been administratively shut down
  • The tunnel was just reset

446. Which two statements about stacking Cisco switches are true ?(choose two)

  • It enables the administrator to manage multiple switches from a single management interface*
  • The administrator can create only one stack of switches in a network which is under the same administrative domian
  • When a new master switch is elected,it queries the previous master for its running configuration
  • The administrator can add additional switches to the stack as demand increases*
  • Each switch manages its own MAC address table

447. Router R1 has a static route that is configured to destination network.A directly connected interface is configured with an IP address in the same destination network.Which statement about R1 is true?

  • R1 refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors
  • R1 prefers the static route
  • R1 prefers the directly connected interface*
  • R1 sends a withdrawal notification to the neighboring router

448. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

  • outside public
  • inside local
  • inside global*
  • inside public
  • outside global
  • outside local
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
NAT use four types of addresses:

* Inside local address – The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. The address is usually not an IP address assigned by the Internet Network Information Center (InterNIC) or service provider. This address is likely to be an RFC 1918 private address.

* Inside global address – A legitimate IP address assigned by the InterNIC or service provider that represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world.

* Outside local address – The IP address of an outside host as it is known to the hosts on the inside network.

* Outside global address – The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network. The owner of the host assigns this address.

449. Which configuration register value can you set on a Cisco device so that it ignores the NVRAM when it boots?

  • 0x2124
  • 0x2120
  • 0x2142*
  • 0x2102
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
To reset the password we can type “confreg 0x2142” under rommon mode to set the configuration register to 2142 in hexadecimal (the prefix 0x means hexadecimal (base 16)). With this setting when that router reboots, it bypasses the startup-config.

450. Which two benefits can you get by stacking Cisco switches?(choose two)

  • Each switch in the stack handles the MAC table independently from the others
  • You can add or remove switches without taking the stack down.*
  • Each switch in the stack can use a different IOS image
  • The stack enables any active member to take over as the master switch if the existing master fails.*
  • You can license the entire stack with a single master license
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
Each stack has only one configuration file, which is distributed to each member in the stack. This allows each switch in the stack to share the same network topology, MAC address, and routing information. In addition, it allows for any member to become the master, if the master ever fails -> Answer D is correct while answer A is not correct.

Switches can be added and deleted to a working stack without affecting stack performance. When a new switch is added, the master switch automatically configures the unit with the currently running Cisco IOS Software image and configuration of the stack. The stack will gather information such as switching table information and update the MAC tables as new addresses are learned. The network manager does not have to do anything to bring up the switch before it is ready to operate. Similarly, switches can be removed from a working stack without any operational effect on the remaining switches. When the stack discovers that a series of ports is no longer present, it will update this information without affecting forwarding or routing. A working stack can accept new members or delete old ones without service interruption -> Answer B is correct.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-3750-series-switches/prod_white_paper09186a00801b096a.html

451. Which command can you enter to verify that a router is synced with a configures time source?

  • show ntp authenticate
  • ntp associations
  • ntp server time
  • ntp authenticate
  • show ntp associations*
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
In the below output, the “show ntp associations” command reveals the IP address of the clock source (which is, the stratum (st) of this reference clock and if a router is synced with the configured time source (in this case R1 is synchronized with, presented by a “*”).

R1#show ntp associations
      address         ref clock     st  when  poll reach  delay  offset    disp
*~    9   509    64  200    32.2   15.44  16000.
 * master (synced), # master (unsynced), + selected, - candidate, ~ configured

452. Which two statements about LLDP are true ?(choose two)

  • It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices*
  • It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3
  • It is a Cisco-proprietary technology
  • It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11a specification
  • It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer*

453. A network administrator enters the following command on a router:logging trap 3 . What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server?(choose three)

  • warning
  • informational
  • error*
  • emergency*
  • debug
  • critical*

454. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

  • The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
  • VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol
  • The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
  • SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated*
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
Only non-root bridge can have root port. Fa0/11 is the root port so we can confirm this switch is not the root bridge -> A is not correct.

From the output we learn this switch is running Rapid STP, not PVST -> B is not correct.

0017.596d.1580 is the MAC address of this switch, not of the root bridge. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.2a00 -> C is not correct.

All of the interface roles of the root bridge are designated. SwitchA has one Root port and 1 Alternative port so it is not the root bridge -> D is correct.

455. Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by a smaller number of public IP addresses?

  • NAT*
  • NTP
  • RFC 1631
  • RFC 1918

456. Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? (Choose two.)

  • inside local*
  • inside global*
  • inside private
  • outside private
  • external global
  • external local
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
NAT use four types of addresses:

* Inside local address – The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. The address is usually not an IP address assigned by the Internet Network Information Center (InterNIC) or service provider. This address is likely to be an RFC 1918 private address.

* Inside global address – A legitimate IP address assigned by the InterNIC or service provider that represents one or more inside local IP addresses to the outside world.

* Outside local address – The IP address of an outside host as it is known to the hosts on the inside network.

* Outside global address – The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network. The owner of the host assigns this address.

457. Refer to the exhibit.A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network.Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?


458. Refer to the exhibit.If the devices produced the given output,what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?

  • There is a speed mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces.*
  • There is an MTU mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interfaces
  • There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1’s Fa0/1 and SW2’s Fa0/1 interface
  • SW1’s Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down.

459. Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

  • 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
  • 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
  • FEC0:2927:1860:W067::2A4
  • 2004:1:25A4:886F::1*

460. Which two statements about configuring an Ether Channel on a Cisco switch are true?(Choose two)

  • The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must have the same STP port path cost
  • The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must be on the same physical switch*
  • An Ether Channel can operate in Layer 2 mode only
  • The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must operate at the same speed and duplex mode*
  • The interfaces configured in the Ether Channel must be part of the same VLAN or trunk

461. Which two statements about IPv6 anycast addresses are true?( Choose two)

  • They receive packets on the closest interface that is discovered by the routing protocol*
  • They are allocated from the IPv6 broadcast address space
  • They are used in conjunction with source-specific multicast for IPv6
  • They use the prefix FC00::/8
  • They arr allocated from the IPv6 unicast address space*

462. What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?

  • Define inside and outside interfaces*
  • Define public and private IP addresses
  • Define IP address pools
  • Define global and local interfaces
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
In NAT configuration we should specify the inside and outside interfaces first with the command “ip nat inside” and “ip nat outside” under interface mode.

463. It you change the weight and distance parameters on a device with an establshed BGP neighbor, which additional task must you perfom to allow the two devices to continue exchanging routes?

  • Reset the BGP connections on the device
  • Reset the gateway interface
  • Clear the IP routes on the device*
  • Change the weight and distance settings on the other device to match

464. Which two features can you enable on a switch to capture and analyze frames that transt an interface? (Choose two)

  • SNMP
  • NetFlow
  • IP SLA
  • SPAN*
  • RSPAN*

465. Which two characteristics of an ICMP echo-based IP SLA are true? (Choose two)

  • It can use RSPAN to report network statistics to a designated remote port
  • It aggregates traffic statistics for reporting on a configurable basis
  • It requires a remote device to log and maintain collected data
  • It measures traffic to determine the reliability of a connection from a Cisco router to a designated end device*
  • It generates continuous traffic to monitor network performance*

466. Which two are features of IPv6?(choose two)

  • multicast*
  • broadcast
  • allcast
  • podcast
  • anycast*

467. Which two statements about Cisco Discovery Protocol are true?(Choose two)

  • It is used to initiate a VTP server and cient relationship
  • It uses SNMP to share device information to an external server
  • It runs on the network layer and the data link layer.
  • It runs on the data link layer only*
  • It uses TLVs to share device information*

468. Which two QoS tools can provide congestion management?(Choose two)

  • CBWFQ*
  • FRTS
  • CAR
  • PQ*
  • PBR
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
This module discusses the types of queueing and queueing-related features (such as bandwidth management) which constitute the congestion management QoS features:

Class-based WFQ (CBWFQ): extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. For CBWFQ, you define traffic classes based on match criteria including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. Packets satisfying the match criteria for a class constitute the traffic for that class.

Priority queueing (PQ): With PQ, packets belonging to one priority class of traffic are sent before all lower priority traffic to ensure timely delivery of those packets.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_conmgt/configuration/xe-3s/qos-conmgt-xe-3s-book/qos-conmgt-oview.html

Note: Committed Access Rate (CAR) is only used for bandwidth limitation by dropping excessive traffic.

469. Refer to the diagram. All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)

  • The subnet mask in use is
  • The subnet mask in use is*
  • The IP address can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1*
  • The IP address can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
  • The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
  • The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.*

470. A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet.
Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)


471. which two statements describe key differences between single- and dual-homed WAN connections? (Choose two)

  • Dual-homed WAN connections are more expensive than single-homed connections*
  • Dual-homed WAN connections have more management-application overhead than single-homed connections
  • Dual-homed WAN connections require more skill to administer than single-homed connections*
  • Dual-homed WAN connections have a simpler topology than single-homed connections
  • Dual-homed WAN connections have higher WAN speed than single- homed connections

472. which two values are needed to run the APIC-EM ACL Analysis tool ?(choose two)

  • destination address*
  • destination port
  • periodic refresh intervlan
  • source address*
  • protocol
  • source port

473. Which QOS feature can drop traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?

  • weighted fair queuing
  • FIFO
  • policing*
  • shaping

474. Which two criteria must be met to support the ICMP echo IP SLA? (Choose two)

  • The destination device must support the echo protocol*
  • default gateway must be configured for the source and destination devices
  • The source device must be running Layer 2 services.
  • The source and destination devices must be Cisco devices
  • The source device must be a Cisco device but the destination device can be from any vendor*

475. What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?

  • trap*
  • get
  • response
  • capture

476. In which STP state does MAC address learning take place on a PortFast-enabled port?

  • listening
  • forwarding*
  • discarding
  • learning

477. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about  this design?

  • The design will function as intended
  • Spanning-tree will need to be used
  • The router will not accept the addressing scheme*
  • The connection between switches should be a trunk.
  • The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

478. For which two reasons might you choose chassis aggregation instead of stacking switches?(Choose two)

  • to allow hot-swapping modules
  • to increase the number of devices in use*
  • to avoid the use of a centralized configuration manager*
  • to avoid relying solely on Ethemet interfaces
  • to increase the maximum port count

479. Which two benefits of implementing a full-mesh WAN topology are true?(Choose two)

  • increased latency
  • redundancy*
  • improved scalability
  • reliability*
  • reduced itter

480. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic on the control plane uses which VLAN ?

  • VLAN 1
  • VLAN 5
  • VLAN 10*
  • VLAN 20

481. Which two conditions can be used to elect the spanning-tree root bridge?(choose two)

  • the highest MAC address
  • the lowest MAC address*
  • the highest port priority
  • the lowest system ID

the lowest switch priority*

482. Which type of device should you use to preserve IP addresses on your network?

  • firewall*
  • WLAN controller
  • load balancer
  • intrusion prevention device

483. What two actions can be taken to secure the virtual teminal interfaces on a router?(choose two)

  • Administratively shut down the interface
  • Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command*
  • Physically secure the interface
  • Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-group command
  • Configure a virtual terminal password and logi process*

484. Which two cable specifications can support 1-Gbps Ethernet? (choose two)

  • Category 5e*
  • RG11
  • RG-6
  • Category 6*
  • Category 3

485. Which value is included in the initial TCP syn message?

  • a session ID
  • sequence number*
  • a TTL number
  • an acknowledgment number

486. At which severity level can syslog logging begin to affect router performance?

  • debugging
  • emergency*
  • notification
  • critical

487. Refer to the exhibit.What is the effect of the configuration?

  • Traffic from PC A is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
  • Traffic from PC A is sent untagged when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
  • Traffic from PC B is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC A*
  • Traffic from PC B is sent untagged when it uses the trunk to communicate with PCA

488. Which effete does the aaa new-model coniguration commandhave?

  • It enables AAA services on the device*
  • It configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA
  • It associates a RADIUS server to an AAA group.
  • It configures a local user on the device.

489. A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast Enable. Which state does the interface enter when it recives a BPDU ?

  • Blocking
  • Shutdown
  • Listening
  • Errdisable*
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
PortFast BPDU guard prevents loops by moving a nontrunking port into an errdisable state when a BPDU is received on that port.In a valid configuration, PortFast-configured interfaces do not receive BPDUs (because PortFast should only be configured on interfaces which are connected to hosts). If a PortFast-configured interface receives a BPDU, an invalid configuration exists. BPDU guard provides a secure response to invalid configurations because the administrator must manually put the interfac421.e back in service.Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4000/8-2glx/configuration/guide/stp_enha.html

490. Which IEEE standard protocol is Which IEEEsful DTP completion in a switch over FastEthernet?

  • 802.3ad
  • 802.1w
  • 802.1Q*
  • 802.1d
Show (Hide) Explanation/Reference
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol for negotiating trunking on a link between two devices and for negotiating the type of trunking encapsulation (802.1Q) to be used.

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Answer on following question is wrong on this page:

437. Which cloud service is typically used to provide DNS and DHCP services to an enterprise?


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