Cybersecurity Essentials My Knowledge Check Answers

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Cybersecurity Essentials My Knowledge Check Answers

1. A threat actor has successfully breached the network firewall without being detected by the IDS system. What condition describes the lack of alert?

  • false negative
  • false positive
  • true positive
  • true negative

Explanation: A false negative is where no alert exists and exploits are not being detected by the security systems that are in place.

2. What does the telemetry function provide in host-based security software?

  • It enables host-based security programs to have comprehensive logging functions.
  • It enables updates of malware signatures.
  • It blocks the passage of zero-day attacks.
  • It updates the heuristic antivirus signature database.

Explanation: The telemetry function allows for robust logging functionality that is essential to cybersecurity operations. Some host-based security programs will submit logs to a central location for analysis.

3. The ability to carry out highly specialized review and evaluation of incoming cybersecurity information to determine if it is useful for intelligence is covered in what category of the National Cybersecurity Workforce Framework?

  • Protect and defend
  • Analyze
  • Oversight and development
  • Security provision

Explanation: The National Institute of Standards and Technologies (NIST) created the National Cybersecurity Workforce Framework to support organizations seeking cybersecurity professionals. The framework organizes cybersecurity work into seven categories:

  • Operate and maintain – Provides the support, administration and maintenance required to ensure effective and efficient IT system performance and security.
  • Protect and defend – Identifies, analyzes, and mitigates threats to internal systems and networks.
  • Investigate – Investigates cybersecurity events and/or cyber-attacks involving IT resources.
  • Collect and operate – Provides specialized denial and deception operations and collection of cybersecurity information.
  • Analyze – Performs highly specialized review and evaluation of incoming cybersecurity information to determine its usefulness for intelligence.
  • Oversee and govern – Provides leadership, management, direction or development and advocacy so an organization may effectively conduct cybersecurity work.
  • Securely provision – Conceptualizes, designs, procures or builds secure IT systems.

4. You have been asked to implement a data integrity program to protect data files that need to be electronically downloaded by the sales staff. You have decided to use the strongest hashing algorithm available on your systems. Which hash algorithm would you select?

  • SHA-256
  • MD5
  • SHA-1
  • AES

Explanation: MD5 and SHA are the two most popular hashing algorithms. SHA-256 uses a 256-bit hash, whereas MD5 produces a 128-bit hash value.

5. What is a daemon?

  • a background process that runs without the need for user interaction
  • a record to keep track of important events
  • a type of security attack
  • an application that monitors and analyzes suspicious activity

Explanation: A daemon in Linux is a background process that runs without the need for user interaction. A network administrator can view log files in order to see information about daemons running on the Linux server.

6. A user was hired by a company to provide a highly available network infrastructure. The user wants to build redundancy into the network in case of a switch failure, but wants to prevent Layer 2 looping. What would the user implement in the network?

  • HSRP
  • VRRP
  • Spanning Tree Protocol
  • GLBP

Explanation: Loops and duplicate frames cause poor performance in a switched network. The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) provides a loop-free path through the switch network.

7. Employees in an organization report that they cannot access the customer database on the main server. Further investigation reveals that the database file is now encrypted. Shortly afterward, the organization receives a threatening email demanding payment for the decryption of the database file. What type of attack has the organization experienced?

  • ransomware
  • man-in-the-middle attack
  • trojan horse
  • doS attack

Explanation: In a ransomware attack, the attacker compromises the victum computer and encrypts the hard drive so that data can no longer be accessed by the user. The attacker then demands payment from the user to decrypt the drive.

8. Cybersecurity professionals may have access to sensitive data. What one factor should they understand to help them make informed ethical decisions in relation to this data?

  • A potential bonus
  • Laws governing the data
  • Partnerships with third parties
  • Cloud provider agreements

Explanation: Professional ethics are principles that govern the behavior of a person or group in a business environment. A cybersecurity specialist needs to understand both the law and the interest of the organization to be able to make right decisions.

9. A user has created a new program and wants to distribute it to everyone in the company. The user wants to ensure that when the program is downloaded that the program is not changed while in transit. What can the user do to ensure that the program is not changed when downloaded?

  • Distribute the program on a thumb drive.
  • Install the program on individual computers.
  • Create a hash of the program file that can be used to verify the integrity of the file after it is downloaded.
  • Turn off antivirus on all the computers.
  • Encrypt the program and require a password after it is downloaded.

Explanation: Hashing is a method to ensure integrity and ensures that the data is not changed.

10. What principle prevents the disclosure of information to unauthorized people, resources, and processes?

  • confidentiality
  • integrity
  • availability
  • nonrepudiation
  • accounting

Explanation: The security principle of confidentiality refers to the prevention of the disclosure of information to unauthorized people, resources, and processes.

11. Match the term to the description.

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

assets information or equipment valuable enough to an organization to warrant protection
threats potential dangers to a protected asset
vulnerabilities weaknesses in a system or design

12. Which type of controls restore the system after a disaster or an event?

  • Preventive controls
  • Detective controls
  • Corrective controls

Explanation: Corrective measures include controls that restore the system after a disaster or an event.

13. Which parameter is commonly used to identify a wireless network name when a home wireless AP is being configured?

  • ad hoc
  • BESS
  • ESS
  • SSID

Explanation: The SSID is used to name a wireless network. This parameter is required in order for a wireless client to attach to a wireless AP.

14. Which technology is used to secure, monitor, and manage mobile devices?

  • MDM
  • VPN
  • rootkit
  • ASA firewall

Explanation: Mobile Device Management (MDM) is used to secure, monitor, and manage both corporate-owned and employee-owned devices such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, and desktops.

15. Which statement describes the term iptables?

  • It is a DNS daemon in Linux.
  • It is a DHCP application in Windows.
  • It is a rule-based firewall application in Linux.
  • It is a file used by a DHCP server to store current active IP addresses.

Explanation: Iptables is an application that allows Linux system administrators to configure network access rules.

16. What should be deployed to protect traffic confidentiality between a public cloud and a private cloud?

  • IPS
  • VPN
  • firewall
  • proxy device

Explanation: A hybrid cloud contains a public cloud and a private cloud interconnected. A site-to-site VPN connection should be used to protect the traffic flow confidentiality between them.

17. Match the network profile element to the description.

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

Total throughput the amount of data passing from a given source to a given destination in a given period of time
Session duration the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination
Ports used a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
Critical asset address space the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data

18. A user is running a routine audit of the server hardware in the company data center. Several servers are using single drives to host operating systems and multiple types of attached storage solutions for storing data. The user wants to offer a better solution to provide fault tolerance during a drive failure. Which solution is best?

  • tape backup
  • RAID
  • UPS
  • offsite backup

Explanation: Fault tolerance is addressing a single point of failure, in this case the hard drives.

19. A system administrator issues the command ps on a server that is running the Linux operating system. What is the purpose of this command?

  • to process a new task
  • to change file permissions
  • to display the contents of the current directory
  • to list the processes currently running in the system

Explanation: The Linux ps command is used to list the currently running processes in the system. If needed, this command can be instructed to display running processes initiated by the current user or other users.

20. In which way does the use of HTTPS increase the security monitoring challenges within enterprise networks?

  • HTTPS traffic is much faster than HTTP traffic.
  • HTTPS traffic enables end-to-end encryption.
  • HTTPS traffic does not require authentication.
  • HTTPS traffic can carry a much larger data payload than HTTP can carry.

Explanation: HTTPS enables end-to-end encrypted network communication, which adds further challenges for network administrators to monitor the content of packets to catch malicious attacks.

21. Which of the following statements describes a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack?

  • An attacker sends an enormous quantity of data that a server cannot handle
  • An attacker monitors network traffic to learn authentication credentials
  • One computer accepts data packets based on the MAC address of another computer
  • A botnet of zombies, coordinated by an attacker, overwhelms a server with DoS attacks

Explanation: An attacker builds a network of infected hosts, called a botnet, comprised of zombies. Zombies are the infected hosts. The attacker uses handler systems to control the zombies. The zombie computers constantly scan and infect more hosts, creating more zombies. When ready, the hacker instructs the handler systems to make the botnet of zombies carry out a DDoS attack.

22. Which network monitoring tool is in the category of network protocol analyzers?

  • SNMP
  • SPAN
  • Wireshark
  • SIEM

Explanation: Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used to capture network traffic. The traffic captured by Wireshark is saved in PCAP files and includes interface information and timestamps.

23. Which threat is mitigated through user awareness training and tying security awareness to performance reviews?

  • user-related threats
  • cloud-related threats
  • physical threats
  • device-related threats

Explanation: Cybersecurity domains provide a framework for evaluating and implementing controls to protect the assets of an organization. Each domain has various countermeasures available to manage threats.

24. What would be the target of an SQL injection attack?

  • database
  • DHCP
  • DNS
  • email

Explanation: SQL is the language used to query a relational database. Cybercriminals use SQL injections to get information, create fake or malicious queries, or to breach the database in some other way.

25. Which type of tool is used by a Linux administrator to attack a computer or network to find vulnerabilities?

  • PenTesting
  • malware analysis
  • intrusion detection system
  • firewall

Explanation: PenTesting is known as penetration testing and includes tools that are used to search for vulnerabilities in a network or computer by attacking it.

26. Keeping data backups offsite is an example of which type of disaster recovery control?

  • corrective
  • preventive
  • management
  • detective

Explanation: A disaster recovery plan enables an organization to prepare for potential disasters and minimize the resulting downtime.

27. Which user account should be used only to perform system management and not as the account for regular use?

  • guest
  • standard user
  • administrator
  • power user

Explanation: The administrator account is used to manage the computer and is very powerful. Best practices recommend that it be used only when it is needed to avoid accidentally performing significant changes to the system.

28. Which method can be used to harden a device?

  • Allow users to re-use old passwords.
  • Allow USB auto-detection.
  • Force periodic password changes.
  • Allow default services to remain enabled.

Explanation: The basic best practices for device hardening are as follows:
Ensure physical security.
Minimize installed packages.
Disable unused services.
Use SSH and disable the root account login over SSH.
Keep the system updated.
Disable USB auto-detection.
Enforce strong passwords.
Force periodic password changes.
Keep users from re-using old passwords.
Review logs regularly.

29. Match the intrusion event defined in the Diamond Model of intrusion to the description.

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

network path used to establish and maintain command and control infrastructure
a tool or technique used to attack the victim capability
the parties responsible for the intrusion adversary
the target of the attack victim

30. Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?

  • HTTPS packets to PC1
  • ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1
  • packets that are destined to PC1 on port 80
  • neighbor advertisements that are received from the ISP router

Explanation: The access list LIMITED_ACCESS will block ICMPv6 packets from the ISP. Both port 80, HTTP traffic, and port 443, HTTPS traffic, are explicitly permitted by the ACL. The neighbor advertisements from the ISP router are implicitly permitted by the implicit permit icmp any any nd-na statement at the end of all IPv6 ACLs.

31. Which statement describes the anomaly-based intrusion detection approach?

  • It compares the operations of a host against a well-defined security policy.
  • It compares the signatures of incoming traffic to a known intrusion database.
  • It compares the antivirus definition file to a cloud based repository for latest updates.
  • It compares the behavior of a host to an established baseline to identify potential intrusions.

Explanation: With an anomaly-based intrusion detection approach, a baseline of host behaviors is established first. The host behavior is checked against the baseline to detect significant deviations, which might indicate potential intrusions.

32. Which security measure is typically found both inside and outside a data center facility?

  • a gate
  • exit sensors
  • security traps
  • biometrics access
  • continuous video surveillance

Explanation: Continuous video surveillance is a security measure found both inside and outside a data center facility. A gate provides outside perimeter security. Security traps, biometrics access, and exit sensors provide inside perimeter security.

33. Which Linux command can be used to display the name of the current working directory?

  • ps
  • pwd
  • chmod
  • sudo

Explanation: One of the most important commands in Linux is the pwd command, which stands for print working directory. It shows users the physical path for the directory they are working in.

34. Which method tries all possible passwords until a match is found?

  • rainbow tables
  • cryptographic
  • dictionary
  • brute force
  • cloud
  • birthday

Explanation: Two common methods of cracking hashes are dictionary and brute force. Given time, the brute force method will always crack a password.

35. When a server profile for an organization is being established, which element describes the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed to be open on the server?

  • listening ports
  • service accounts
  • software environment
  • critical asset address space

Explanation: A server profile will often contain the following:

  • Listening ports – the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed to be open on the server
  • User accounts – the parameters defining user access and behavior
  • Service accounts – the definitions of the type of service that an application is allowed to run on a server
  • Software environment – the tasks, processes, and applications that are permitted to run on the server

36. What technology was created to replace the BIOS program on modern personal computer motherboards?

  • UEFI
  • RAM
  • CMOS
  • MBR

Explanation: As of 2015, most personal computer motherboards are shipped with UEFI as the replacement for the BIOS program.

37. Which type of server would support the SMTP, POP, and IMAP protocols?

  • DHCP
  • email
  • proxy
  • syslog

Explanation: The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send email. The Post Office Protocol (POP) and Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) are used to retrieve email. All three protocols are application layer protocols.

38. What type of attack occurs when data goes beyond the memory areas allocated to an application?

  • RAM spoofing
  • RAM injection
  • Buffer overflow
  • SQL injection

Explanation: A buffer overflow occurs when data is written beyond the limits of a buffer. By changing data beyond the boundaries of a buffer, the application can access memory allocated to other processes. This can lead to a system crash or data compromise, or provide escalation of privileges.

39. Which technique is necessary to ensure a private transfer of data using a VPN?

  • authorization
  • encryption
  • scalability
  • virtualization

Explanation: Confidential and secure transfers of data with VPNs require data encryption.

40. An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?

  • cracking
  • denial of service
  • rogue access point
  • spoofing

Explanation: Configuring the cell phone to act as a wireless access point means that the cell phone is now a rogue access point. The employee unknowingly breached the security of the company network by allowing a user to access the network without connecting through the company access point. Cracking is the process of obtaining passwords from data stored or transmitted on a network. Denial of service attacks refer to sending large amounts of data to a networked device, such as a server, to prevent legitimate access to the server. Spoofing refers to access gained to a network or data by an attacker appearing to be a legitimate network device or user.

41. What component of a security policy explicitly defines the type of traffic allowed on a network and what users are allowed and not allowed to do?

  • identification and authentication policies
  • password policies
  • acceptable use policies
  • remote access policies

Explanation: Security policies specify requirements and provide a baseline for organizations. Security policies may include the following:

  • Identification and authentication policies that specify authorized individuals that have access to network resources and verification procedures
  • Password policies that ensure minimum requirements are met and authentication methods are being enforced and updated
  • Remote access policies that identify how remote users can access a network and to what they are allowed to connect
  • Acceptable use policies that identify network applications and network usage that are allowed within the organization

42. An attacker is sitting in front of a store and wirelessly copies emails and contact lists from nearby unsuspecting user devices. What type of attack is this?

  • bluesnarfing
  • smishing
  • RF jamming
  • bluejacking

Explanation: Blusnarfing is the copying of user information through unauthorized Bluetooth transmissions.

43. An organization has hired a former hacker to test how well the organization would tolerate a real attack by using malicious techniques. What type of testing is the hacker performing for the organization?

  • reconnaissance
  • penetration
  • vulnerability
  • sniffing

Explanation: A penetration test is a safe way for an organization to test systems for weakness by using the same malicious techniques that are used by real hackers.

44. What term is used to describe the technology that replaces sensitive information with a nonsensitive version?

  • hiding
  • masking
  • retracting
  • whiteout
  • blanking

Explanation: Data masking replaces sensitive information with nonsensitive information. After replacement, the nonsensitive version looks and acts like the original.

45. What is the outcome when a Linux administrator enters the man man command?

  • The man man command configures the network interface with a manual address
  • The man man command provides a list of commands available at the current prompt
  • The man man command provides documentation about the man command
  • The man man command opens the most recent log file

Explanation: The man command is short for manual and is used to obtain documentation about a Linux command. The command man man would provide documentation about how to use the manual.

46. Which protocol would be used to provide security for employees that access systems remotely from home?

  • Telnet
  • SCP
  • SSH
  • WPA

Explanation: Various application layer protocols are used to for communications between systems. A secure protocol provides a secure channel over an unsecured network.

47. Which security technology is commonly used by a teleworker when accessing resources on the main corporate office network?

  • IPS
  • VPN
  • SecureX
  • biometric access

Explanation: VPNs are commonly used between corporate sites and between mobile or remote workers that connect to and use resources on the corporate network.

48. An organization allows employees to work from home two days a week. Which technology should be implemented to ensure data confidentiality as data is transmitted?

  • VLANS
  • SHS
  • RAID
  • VPN

Explanation: Protecting data confidentiality requires an understanding of the technologies used to protect data in all three data states.

49. Which language is used to query a relational database?

  • Python
  • C++
  • Java
  • SQL

Explanation: Cybercriminals use SQL injections to breach a relational database, create malicious SQL queries, and obtain sensitive data.

50. Which wireless standard made AES and CCM mandatory?

  • WEP
  • WPA
  • WPA2
  • WEP2

Explanation: Wireless security depends on several industry standards and has progressed from WEP to WPA and finally WPA2.

51. The manager of a new data center requisitions magnetic door locks. The locks will require employees to swipe an ID card to open. Which type of security control is being implemented?

  • preventive
  • recovery
  • corrective
  • compensative

Explanation: Preventive security controls prevent unwanted or unauthorized activities from occurring and/or apply restrictions to authorized users.

52. A NIDS/NIPS has identified a threat. Which type of security data will be generated and sent to a logging device?

  • alert
  • session
  • statistical
  • transaction

Explanation: Alert data is generated by IPS or IDS devices in response to traffic that violates a rule or matches the signature of a known security threat.

53. Match the antimalware approach to the description.

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

recognizes malware through analysis of suspicious actions behavior-based
recognizes characteristics of known malware files signature-based
recognizes general features shared by types of malware heuristics-based

54. Which measure can a security analyst take to perform effective security monitoring against network traffic encrypted by SSL technology?

  • Deploy a Cisco ASA.
  • Deploy a Cisco SSL Appliance.
  • Use a Syslog server to capture network traffic.
  • Require remote access connections through IPsec VPN.

Explanation: Deploy a Cisco SSL Appliance to decrypt SSL traffic and send it to intrusion prevention system (IPS) appliances to identify risks normally hidden by SSL.

55. Which of the following principles is used by the U.S. government in its access control models?

  • Separation of duties
  • Need to know
  • Job rotation
  • Mandatory vacations

Explanation: Employees in an organization are typically granted access to the data and information that they need to do their job. The U.S. government uses the “need to know” principle in its access control models.

56. A company is developing an internet store website. Which protocol should be used to transfer credit card information from customers to the company web server?

  • FTPS
  • HTTP
  • HTTPS
  • WPA2
  • SSH

Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) provides web connectivity and website services. HTTP does not use encryption when transmitting content, leaving the data in transit vulnerable to monitoring and attack. HTTPS uses SSL/TLS to encrypt communication between the client and the server, thus providing confidentiality and preventing eavesdropping and tampering.

57. Which type of attack is carried out by threat actors against a network to determine which IP addresses, protocols, and ports are allowed by ACLs?

  • phishing
  • reconnaissance
  • denial of service
  • social engineering

Explanation: Packet filtering ACLs use rules to filter incoming and outgoing traffic. These rules are defined by specifying IP addresses, port numbers, and protocols to be matched. Threat actors can use a reconnaissance attack involving port scanning or penetration testing to determine which IP addresses, protocols, and ports are allowed by ACLs.

58. What is the first step taken in risk assessment?

  • Identify threats and vulnerabilities and the matching of threats with vulnerabilities.
  • Compare to any ongoing risk assessment as a means of evaluating risk management effectiveness.
  • Establish a baseline to indicate risk before security controls are implemented.
  • Perform audits to verify threats are eliminated.

Explanation: The three steps of risk assessment in order are as follows:

  1. Identify threats and vulnerabilities and the matching of threats with vulnerabilities.
  2. Establish a baseline to indicate risk before security controls are implemented.
  3. Compare to an ongoing risk assessment as a means of evaluating risk management effectiveness.

59. Which data state is maintained in NAS and SAN services?

  • stored data
  • data in-transit
  • data in-process
  • encrypted data

Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist must be familiar with the types of technologies used to store, transmit, and process data.

60. How much RAM is addressable by a 32-bit version of Windows?

  • 4 GB
  • 8 GB
  • 16 GB
  • 32 GB

Explanation: A 32-bit operating system is capable of supporting approximately 4 GB of memory. This is because 2^32 is approximately 4 GB.

61. What does a rootkit modify?

  • operating system
  • programs
  • screen savers
  • Notepad
  • Microsoft Word

Explanation: A rootkit commonly modifies an operating system to create a backdoor to bypass normal authentication mechanisms.

62. Which operating system source code can be downloaded and modified by any person or company?

  • Linux
  • Mac OS X
  • Windows
  • Cisco IOS

Explanation: Open-source programs, like Linux, allow the source code to be distributed and changed by anyone.

63. What non-technical method could a cybercriminal use to gather sensitive information from an organization?

  • social engineering
  • pharming
  • man-in-the-middle
  • ransomware

Explanation: Social engineering is a very effective way to get personal or sensitive corpoate information from an employee. Cybercriminals may try to get to know an employee and then use trust or familiarity to gather the needed information.

64. Which zone-based policy firewall zone is system-defined and applies to traffic destined for the router or originating from the router?

  • self zone
  • system zone
  • local zone
  • inside zone
  • outside zone

Explanation: Zone-based policy firewalls typically have the private (internal or trusted) zone, the public (external or untrusted) zone, and the default self zone, which does not require any interfaces. The private or internal zone is commonly used for internal LANs. The public zone would include the interfaces that connect to an external (outside the business) interface.

65. Which statement describes the tcpdump tool?

  • It is a command-line packet analyzer.
  • It is used to control multiple TCP-based applications.
  • It accepts and analyzes data captured by Wireshark.
  • It can be used to analyze network log data in order to describe and predict network behavior.

Explanation: The tcpdump command line tool is a popular packet analyzer. It can display packet captures in real time or write packet captures to a file.

66. What is the well-known port address number used by DNS to serve requests?

  • 25
  • 110
  • 53
  • 60

Explanation: Port numbers are used in TCP and UDP communications to differentiate between the various services running on a device. The well-known port number used by DNS is port 53.

67. What is the function of the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA)?

  • It audits the CIA Triad objectives.
  • It provides security guidance to any organization that uses cloud computing.
  • It ensures total compliance with the ISO 27000 standards.
  • It produces a statement of applicability (SOA) which stipulates control objectives and audit controls to be implemented.

Explanation: The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) provides security guidance to any organization that uses cloud computing or wants to assess the overall security risk of a cloud provider.

68. Which scenario would cause an ACL misconfiguration and deny all traffic?

  • Apply a standard ACL in the inbound direction.
  • Apply a named ACL to a VTY line.
  • Apply an ACL that has all deny ACE statements.
  • Apply a standard ACL using the ip access-group out command.

Explanation: Having all ACEs with deny statements denies all traffic because there is an implicit deny any command at the end of every standard ACL.

69. Which statement describes the term attack surface?

  • It is the network interface where attacks originate.
  • It is the group of hosts that experiences the same attack.
  • It is the total number of attacks toward an organization within a day.
  • It is the total sum of vulnerabilities in a system that is accessible to an attacker.

Explanation: An attack surface is the total sum of the vulnerabilities in a system that is accessible to an attacker. The attack surface can consist of open ports on servers or hosts, software that runs on Internet-facing servers, wireless network protocols, and even users.

70. What is a purpose of implementing VLANs on a network?

  • They can separate user traffic.
  • They prevent Layer 2 loops.
  • They eliminate network collisions.
  • They allow switches to forward Layer 3 packets without a router.

Explanation: VLANs are used on a network to separate user traffic based on factors such as function, project team, or application, without regard for the physical location of the user or device.

71. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header used to detect corruption in the IPv4 header?

  • header checksum
  • version
  • destination IPv4 address
  • protocol

Explanation: The header checksum is used to determine if any errors have been introduced during transmission.

72. A technician notices that an application is not responding to commands and that the computer seems to respond slowly when applications are opened. What is the best administrative tool to force the release of system resources from the unresponsive application?

  • Task Manager
  • Add or Remove Programs
  • Event Viewer
  • System Restore

Explanation: Use the Task Manager Performance tab to see a visual representation of CPU and RAM utilization. This is helpful in determining if more memory is needed. Use the Applications tab to halt an application that is not responding.

73. What is the motivation of a white hat attacker?

  • taking advantage of any vulnerability for illegal personal gain
  • fine tuning network devices to improve their performance and efficiency
  • studying operating systems of various platforms to develop a new system
  • discovering weaknesses of networks and systems to improve the security level of these systems

Explanation: White hat attackers break into networks or computer systems in order to discover weaknesses for the purpose of improving the security of these systems. These break-ins are done with permission from the owner or the organization. Any results are reported back to the owner or the organization.

74. What is an example of the implementation of physical security?

  • establishing personal firewalls on each computer
  • encrypting all sensitive data that is stored on the servers
  • requiring employees to use a card key when entering a secure area
  • ensuring that all operating system and antivirus software is up to date

Explanation: Encrypting data, keeping software up to date, and the use of personal firewalls are all security precautions, but will not restrict physical access to secure areas by only authorized people.

75. What is the term used when a malicious party sends a fraudulent email disguised as being from a legitimate, trusted source?

  • phishing
  • vishing
  • backdoor
  • Trojan

Explanation: Phishing is used by malicious parties who create fraudulent messages that attempt to trick a user into either sharing sensitive information or installing malware.

76. What Windows utility should be used to configure password rules and account lockout policies on a system that is not part of a domain?

  • Event Viewer security log
  • Local Security Policy tool
  • Active Directory Security tool
  • Computer Management

Explanation: A technician must be aware of the technologies and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization from threats and vulnerabilities. A Windows Domain Security Policy is used and applied when a user logs in to a computer that is on a corporate network. A Windows Local Security Policy is used for stand-alone computers to enforce security settings.

77. What technology has a function of using trusted third-party protocols to issue credentials that are accepted as an authoritative identity?

  • PKI certificates
  • symmetric keys
  • hashing algorithms
  • digital signatures

Explanation: Digital certificates are used to prove the authenticity and integrity of PKI certificates, but a PKI Certificate Authority is a trusted third-party entity that issues PKI certificates. PKI certificates are public information and are used to provide authenticity, confidentiality, integrity, and nonrepudiation services that can scale to large requirements.

78. Which two types of controls are effective after a violation of a security policy occurs? (Choose two.)

  • corrective
  • recovery
  • preventive
  • deterrent
  • compensative

Explanation: Organizations will implement corrective access controls after a system experiences a threat. Recovery security controls restore resources, functions and capabilities back to a normal state after a violation of a security policy.

79. Which technology is used to verify the integrity of files to ensure they were not modified in transit?

  • asymmetric encryption
  • checksum
  • secure cookies
  • normalization

Explanation: Verification of file integrity is accomplished by using a checksum. If the checksum on the original file and the received file are the same then no change has occurred in transit.

80. What three best practices can help defend against social engineering attacks? (Choose three.)

  • Deploy well-designed firewall appliances.
  • Educate employees regarding policies.
  • Add more security guards.
  • Do not provide password resets in a chat window.
  • Enable a policy that states that the IT department should supply information over the phone only to managers.
  • Resist the urge to click on enticing web links.

Explanation: Employees should be taught to avoid getting caught in a social engineering situation. They should never click a link in an email from an unknown source, never share a password, and never send sensitive corporate information under pressure to an unknown destination.

81. An administrator of a small data center wants a flexible, secure method of remotely connecting to servers. Which protocol would be best to use?

  • Telnet
  • Remote Desktop
  • Secure Copy
  • Secure Shell

Explanation: Because hackers sniffing traffic can read clear text passwords, any connection needs to be encrypted. Additionally, a solution should not be operating system-dependent.

82. Which penetration test phase is concerned with conducting reconnaissance to gain information about the target network or device?

  • planning
  • discovery
  • attack
  • reporting

Explanation: There are four phases in performing network penetration tests: planning, discovery, attack, and reporting.
Phase 2, discovery, is concerned with using passive and active reconnaissance techniques to gather information.

83. Why is Kali Linux a popular choice in testing the network security of an organization?

  • It is an open source Linux security distribution containing many penetration tools.
  • It can be used to intercept and log network traffic.
  • It can be used to test weaknesses by using only malicious software.
  • It is a network scanning tool that prioritizes security risks.

Explanation: Kali is an open source Linux security distribution that is commonly used by IT professionals to test the security of networks.

84. For security reasons a network administrator needs to ensure that local computers cannot ping each other. Which settings can accomplish this task?

  • smartcard settings
  • firewall settings
  • MAC address settings
  • file system settings

Explanation: Smartcard and file system settings do not affect network operation. MAC address settings and filtering may be used to control device network access but cannot be used to filter different data traffic types.

85. A technician has captured packets on a network that has been running slowly when accessing the internet. Which port number should the technician look for within the captured material to locate HTTP packets?

  • 20
  • 21
  • 53
  • 80
  • 110

Explanation: HTTP uses TCP port 80 and HTTPS uses TCP port 443. HTTP and HTTPS are protocols commonly used to access web pages.

86. Passwords, passphrases, and PINs are examples of which security term?

  • identification
  • authorization
  • authentication
  • access

Explanation: Authentication methods are used to strengthen access control systems. It is important to understand the available authentication methods.

87. What are two recommended steps to protect and secure a wireless network? (Choose two.)

  • Update firmware.
  • Use WPA2-AES encryption.
  • Locate the wireless router where it is accessible to users.
  • Use the default SSID.
  • Enable remote management.

Explanation: Two best practices for securing wireless networks are to encrypt the wireless traffic with WPA2 encryption and to keep the wireless router firmware updated. This prevents data from being readable by an attacker and fixes any known bugs and vulnerabilities in the router.

88. Which service will resolve a specific web address into an IP address of the destination web server?

  • DHCP
  • NTP
  • ICMP
  • DNS

Explanation: DNS resolves a website address to the actual IP address of that destination.

89. What information does the SIEM network security management tool provide to network administrators?

  • real time reporting and analysis of security events
  • detection of open TCP and UDP ports
  • assessment of system security configurations
  • a map of network systems and services

Explanation: SIEM, which is a combination of Security Information Management and Security Event Management products, is used for forensic analysis and provides real-time reporting of security events.

90. What is the primary means for mitigating virus and Trojan horse attacks?

  • antisniffer software
  • antivirus software
  • encryption
  • blocking ICMP echo and echo-replies

Explanation: Antivirus software is the primary means of mitigating both virus and Trojan horse attacks. By using up-to-date antivirus software, the spread of viruses and Trojan horse attacks can be reduced.

91. At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network without using a password. Which mode is the access point using?

  • network
  • open
  • passive
  • shared-key

Explanation: Network mode is not an authentication mode, it refers to WLAN standards for 802.11a/b/g/n/ac/ad and the ability for access points to operate in mixed mode to support different standards, but it is not an authentication mode. Open authentication is a null authentication mode because wireless connectivity is granted to any wireless device. This authentication is used where security is not a concern. Passive mode is not an authentication mode, it refers to the open advertisement of the SSID, standards, and security settings by an access point. Shared-key authentication uses a pre-shared key between the client and the access point.

92. Which user can override file permissions on a Linux computer?

  • any user that has 'group' permission to the file
  • root user
  • any user that has 'other' permission to the file
  • only the creator of the file

Explanation: A user has as much rights to a file as the file permissions allow. The only user that can override file permission on a Linux computer is the root user. Because the root user has the power to override file permissions, the root user can write to any file.

93. What are two properties of a cryptographic hash function? (Choose two.)

  • Complex inputs will produce complex hashes.
  • Hash functions can be duplicated for authentication purposes.
  • The output is a fixed length.
  • The input for a particular hash algorithm has to have a fixed size.
  • The hash function is one way and irreversible.

Explanation: A cryptographic hash function should have the following properties:

  • The input can be any length.
  • The output has a fixed length.
  • The hash value is relatively easy to compute for any given input.
  • The hash is one way and not reversible.
  • The hash is collision free, meaning that two different input values will result in different hash values

94. Match the Security Onion tool with the description.

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

network-based intrusion detection system Snort
packet capture application Wireshark
host-based intrusion detection system OSSEC
high-level cybersecurity analysis console Sguil

95. Match the command line tool with its description.

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

Displays TCP/IP settings (IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, DNS, and MAC information. ipconfig
Gathers information from TCP and UDP network connections and can be used for port scanning, monitoring, banner grabbing, and file copying. netcat
Assembles and analyzes packets for port scanning, path discovery, OS fingerprinting, and firewall testing. hping
Queries a DNS server to help troubleshoot a DNS database. nslookup

96. What single access list statement matches all of the following networks?
192.168.16.0
192.168.17.0
192.168.18.0
192.168.19.0

  • access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255
  • access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255
  • access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.15.255
  • access-list 10 permit 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255

Explanation: The ACL statement access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255 will match all four network prefixes. All four prefixes have the same 22 high order bits. These 22 high order bits are matched by the network prefix and wildcard mask of 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255.

97. A user is proposing the purchase of a patch management solution for a company. The user wants to give reasons why the company should spend money on a solution. What benefits does patch management provide? (Choose three.)

  • Administrators can approve or deny patches.
  • Patches can be written quickly.
  • Updates can be forced on systems immediately.
  • Patches can be chosen by the user.
  • Computers require a connection to the Internet to receive patches.
  • Updates cannot be circumvented.

Explanation: A centralized patch management system can speed up deployment of patches and automate the process. Other good reasons to using an automated patch update service include the following:

  • Administrators control the update process.
  • Reports are generated.
  • Updates are provided from a local server.
  • Users cannot circumvent the update process.

98. What is the description of VM sprawl?

  • VMs are spread over too large of a geographic area.
  • The demand for VMs is greater than the ability to create VMs.
  • When a process breaks out of the VM and interacts with the host operating system.
  • There are more VMs than can be effectively managed.

Explanation: VM Sprawl occurs when an organization has more VMs on the network than it can effectively control and manage.

99. Which activity is typically performed by a threat actor in the installation phase of the Cyber Kill Chain?

  • Harvest email addresses of user accounts.
  • Obtain an automated tool to deliver the malware payload.
  • Open a two-way communication channel to the CnC infrastructure.
  • Install a web shell on the target web server for persistent access.

Explanation: In the installation phase of the Cyber Kill Chain, the threat actor establishes a back door into the system to allow for continued access to the target.

100. Which wireless parameter refers to the frequency bands used to transmit data to a wireless access point?

  • SSID
  • channel settings
  • security mode
  • scanning mode

Explanation: An access point can be manually set to a specific frequency band or channel in order to avoid interference with other wireless devices in the area.

101. A network administrator is checking the system logs and notices unusual connectivity tests to multiple well-known ports on a server. What kind of potential network attack could this indicate?

  • access
  • reconnaissance
  • denial of service
  • information theft

Explanation: A reconnaissance attack is the unauthorized discovery and mapping of systems, services, or vulnerabilities. One of the most common reconnaissance attacks is performed by using utilities that automatically discover hosts on the networks and determine which ports are currently listening for connections.

102. Which utility uses the Internet Control Messaging Protocol (ICMP)?

  • RIP
  • DNS
  • ping
  • NTP

Explanation: ICMP is used by network devices to send error messages.

103. Which security management plan specifies a component that involves tracking the location and configuration of networked devices and software across an enterprise?

  • asset management
  • risk management
  • vulnerability management
  • patch management

Explanation: Asset management involves tracking the location and configuration of networked devices and software across an enterprise.

104. Which access control model applies the strictest access control and is often used in military and mission critical applications?

  • discretionary
  • mandatory
  • nondiscretionary
  • attribute-based

Explanation: Military and mission critical applications typically use mandatory access control which applies the strictest access control to protect network resources.

105. A technician has installed a third party utility that is used to manage a Windows 7 computer. However, the utility does not automatically start whenever the computer is started. What can the technician do to resolve this problem?

  • Uninstall the program and then choose Add New Programs in the Add or Remove Programs utility to install the application.
  • Use the Add or Remove Programs utility to set program access and defaults.
  • Change the startup type for the utility to Automatic in Services.
  • Set the application registry key value to one.

Explanation: The Services console in Windows OS allows for the management of all the services on the local and remote computers. The setting of Automatic in the Services console enables the chosen service to start when the computer is started.

106. Which Windows tool can be used to review host logs?

  • Services
  • Event Viewer
  • Task Manager
  • Device Manager

Explanation: Event Viewer in Windows can be used to review entries in various logs.

107. What device would be used as a second line of defense in a defense-in-depth approach?

  • edge router
  • firewall
  • switch
  • internal router

Explanation: In a defense-in-depth approach, the edge router would form the first line of defense. The firewall would be the second line of defense followed by the internal router making up the third line of defense.

108. Why would a rootkit be used by a hacker?

  • to do reconnaissance
  • to try to guess a password
  • to gain access to a device without being detected
  • to reverse engineer binary files

Explanation: Hackers use rootkits to avoid detection as well as hide any software installed by the hacker.

109. A company manages sensitive customer data for multiple clients. The current authentication mechanism to access the database is username and passphrase. The company is reviewing the risk of employee credential compromise that may lead to a data breach and decides to take action to mitigate the risk before further actions can be taken to eliminate the risk. Which action should the company take for now?

  • Purchase an insurance policy.
  • Install fingerprint or retinal scanners.
  • Implement multi-factor authentication.
  • Enhance data encryption with an advanced algorithm.

Explanation: Risk management is the identification, evaluation, and prioritization of risks. Organizations manage risk in one of four ways, avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or accept. In this scenario, implementing multi-factor authentication can reduce the risk of employee credential compromise, which is a mitigation action. Installing fingerprint or retinal scanners eliminates the risk, which is avoidance. Purchasing an insurance policy is transferring the financial risk to the insurance company.

110. What is an attack vector as it relates to network security?

  • a defense-in-depth approach to security
  • a method of reverse engineering binary files
  • a particular section of a network design where security is applied
  • a path by which a threat actor can gain access to an internal network device

Explanation: An attack vector is a path used by a threat actor to gain access to a server, host, or network and can originate from within the company or from the outside.

111. Which statement describes a VPN?

  • VPNs use dedicated physical connections to transfer data between remote users.
  • VPNs use logical connections to create public networks through the Internet.
  • VPNs use open source virtualization software to create the tunnel through the Internet.
  • VPNs use virtual connections to create a private network through a public network.

Explanation: A VPN is a private network that is created over a public network. Instead of using dedicated physical connections, a VPN uses virtual connections routed through a public network between two network devices.

112. How does a firewall handle traffic that is originating from the DMZ network and traveling to a private network?

  • Traffic is usually blocked when it is originating from the DMZ network and traveling to a private network.
  • Traffic is usually allowed when it is originating from the DMZ network and traveling to a private network.
  • Traffic is usually not filtered using firewall rules when it is originating from the DMZ network and traveling to a private network.
  • Traffic is allowed when it is originating from the private network, but the response traffic from the DMZ network will be blocked.

Explanation: A firewall will usually block traffic that is originating from the DMZ network and traveling to the private network. If traffic originated from the private network and the DMZ is sending returning traffic to the private network, then it will be allowed.

113. A secretary receives a phone call from someone claiming that their manager is about to give an important presentation but the presentation files are corrupted.

The caller sternly asks that the secretary email the presentation right away to a personal email address. The caller also states that the secretary is being held personally responsible for the success of this presentation.

What type of social engineering tactic is the caller using?

  • trusted partners
  • intimidation
  • urgency
  • familiarity

Explanation: Intimidation is a tactic that cybercriminals will often use to bully a victim into taking an action that compromises security.

114. What is the function of SDKs in application development?

  • to provide a repository of code to reduce time and cost of application development
  • to prevent software from being reverse engineered by replacing sensitive data with fictional data
  • to maintain data integrity and identify malicious input
  • to store precompiled SQL statements that execute tasks
  • to verify software can run under required security settings

Explanation: SDKs, or Software Development Kits, provide a repository of useful code to make application development faster and cheaper.

115. A network administrator is creating a network profile to generate a network baseline. What is included in the critical asset address space element?

  • the list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
  • the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data
  • the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination
  • the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed to be open on the server

Explanation: A network profile should include some important elements, such as the following:

  • Total throughput – the amount of data passing from a given source to a given destination in a given period of time
  • Session duration – the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination
  • Ports used – a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
  • Critical asset address space – the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data

116. What is the purpose of the DH algorithm?

  • to provide nonrepudiation support
  • to support email data confidentiality
  • to encrypt data traffic after a VPN is established
  • to generate a shared secret between two hosts that have not communicated before

Explanation: DH is an asymmetric mathematical algorithm that allows two computers to generate an identical shared secret, without having communicated before. Asymmetric key systems are extremely slow for any sort of bulk encryption. It is common to encrypt the bulk of the traffic using a symmetric algorithm such as DES, 3DES, or AES, and use the DH algorithm to create keys that will be used by the symmetric encryption algorithm.

117. Match the commonly used ports on a Linux server with the corresponding service. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation:

SMTP 25
Telnet 23
DNS 53
HTTPS 443

118. Which technique could be used by security personnel to analyze a suspicious file in a safe environment?

  • baselining
  • bblock listing
  • sandboxing
  • allow listing

Explanation: Sandboxing allows suspicious files to be executed and analyzed in a safe environment. There are free public sandboxes that allow for malware samples to be uploaded or submitted and analyzed.

119. What type of ACL offers greater flexibility and control over network access?

  • flexible
  • named standard
  • extended
  • numbered standard

Explanation: The two types of ACLs are standard and extended. Both types can be named or numbered, but extended ACLs offer greater flexibility.

120. What type of security test uses simulated attacks to determine possible consequences of a real threat?

  • penetration testing
  • integrity checking
  • vulnerability scanning
  • network scanning

Explanation: There are many security tests that can be used to assess a network. Penetration testing is used to determine the possible consequences of successful attacks on the network. Integrity checking is used to detect and report changes made to systems. Vulnerability scanning is used to find weaknesses and misconfigurations on network systems. Network scanning is used to discover available resources on the network.

121. Which access control model assigns security privileges based on the position, responsibilities, or job classification of an individual or group within an organization?

  • discretionary
  • role-based
  • mandatory
  • rule-based

Explanation: Role-based access control models assign privileges based on position, responsibilities, or job classification. Users and groups with the same responsibilities or job classification share the same assigned privileges. This type of access control is also referred to as nondiscretionary access control.

122. Which technology can be used to protect VoIP against eavesdropping?

  • SSH
  • ARP
  • strong authentication
  • encrypted voice messages

Explanation: Many advanced technologies such as VoIP, streaming video, and electronic conferencing require advanced countermeasures.

123. Which type of attack involves the unauthorized discovery and mapping of network systems and services?

  • reconnaissance
  • DoS
  • access
  • trust exploitation

Explanation: Network reconnaissance attacks involve the unauthorized discovery and mapping of the network and network systems. Access attacks and trust exploitation involve unauthorized manipulation of data, access to systems or user privileges. DoS, or Denial of Service attacks, are intended to prevent legitimate users and devices from accessing network resources.

124. Refer to the exhibit. The network "A" contains multiple corporate servers that are accessed by hosts from the Internet for information about the corporation. What term is used to describe the network marked as "A"?

  • DMZ
  • internal network
  • perimeter security boundary
  • untrusted network

Explanation: A demilitarized zone or DMZ is a network area protected by one or more firewalls. The DMZ typically contains servers that are commonly accessed by external users. A web server is commonly contained in a DMZ.

125. The laptop of an attacker is attached to a corporate network. The attacker is examining all of the network traffic that is passing through the network interface card. Which network reconnaissance method does this scenario describe?

  • bug bounty
  • penetration exercise
  • red team blue team
  • sniffing

Explanation: Sniffing is effectively electronic eavesdropping on a network. It occurs when someone is examining all network traffic as it passes through their NIC, independent of whether the traffic is addressed to them or not. Criminals accomplish network sniffing using software, hardware, or a combination of the two.

126. Which algorithm is used with symmetric encryption to provide confidentiality?

  • MD5
  • ECC
  • RSA
  • AES

Explanation: Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm. MD5 is a hashing algorithm while RSA and ECC are asymmetric encryption algorithms.

127. What classification is used for an alert that correctly identifies that an exploit has occurred?

  • true positive
  • false positive
  • true negative
  • false negative

Explanation: A true positive occurs when an IDS and IPS signature is correctly fired and an alarm is generated when offending traffic is detected.

128. Which antimalware software approach can recognize various characteristics of known malware files to detect a threat?

  • routing-based
  • behavior-based
  • signature-based
  • heuristics-based

Explanation: Antimalware programs may detect viruses using three different approaches:

  • signature-based – by recognizing various characteristics of known malware files
  • heuristics-based – by recognizing general features shared by various types of malware
  • behavior-based – through analysis of suspicious activities

129. Which threat type describes the case when cloud computing resources are set up incorrectly?

  • inside threat
  • data breaches
  • cloud misconfiguration
  • poor cloud security architecture strategy

Explanation: There are many threats associated with cloud computing including:

  • inside threat – occurs when an employee, contractor, or business partner maliciously or unintentionally compromise the cloud service.
  • data breaches – occurs when protected sensitive data is accessed by an unauthorized entity.
  • cloud misconfiguration – occurs when the cloud computing resources are set up incorrectly making it vulnerable to attacks.
  • poor cloud security architecture strategy – vulnerabilities introduced if the cloud security architecture is not fully understood or correctly implemented.

130. Which term is used in the Diamond Model of intrusion to describe a tool that a threat actor uses toward a target system?

  • adversary
  • capability
  • infrastructure
  • weaponization

Explanation: The Diamond Model of intrusion contains four parts:

  • Adversary – the parties responsible for the intrusion
  • Capability – a tool or technique that the adversary uses to attack the victim
  • Infrastructure – the network path or paths that the adversaries use to establish and maintain command and control over their capabilities
  • Victim – the target of the attack

131. In which configuration would an outbound ACL placement be preferred over an inbound ACL placement?

  • when the ACL is applied to an outbound interface to filter packets coming from multiple inbound interfaces before the packets exit the interface
  • when a router has more than one ACL
  • when an outbound ACL is closer to the source of the traffic flow
  • when an interface is filtered by an outbound ACL and the network attached to the interface is the source network being filtered within the ACL

Explanation: An outbound ACL should be utilized when the same ACL filtering rules will be applied to packets coming from more than one inbound interface before exiting a single outbound interface. The outbound ACL will be applied on the single outbound interface.

132. Match the Linux command to the function. (Not all options are used.)

Explanation:

Displays the name of the current working directory pwd
runs a command as another user sudo
modifies file permissions chmod
lists the processes that are currently running ps

133. The IT security personnel of an organization notice that the web server deployed in the DMZ is frequently targeted by threat actors. The decision is made to implement a patch management system to manage the server. Which risk management strategy method is being used to respond to the identified risk?

  • risk sharing
  • risk retention
  • risk reduction
  • risk avoidance

Explanation: There are four potential strategies for responding to risks that have been identified:

  • Risk avoidance – Stop performing the activities that create risk.
  • Risk reduction – Decrease the risk by taking measures to reduce vulnerability.
  • Risk sharing – Shift some of the risk to other parties.
  • Risk retention – Accept the risk and its consequences.

134. What technology allows users to verify the identity of a website and to trust code that is downloaded from the Internet?

  • asymmetric key algorithm
  • digital signature
  • encryption
  • hash algorithm

Explanation: Digital signatures provide assurance of the authenticity and integrity of software codes. They provide the ability to trust code that is downloaded from the Internet.

135. A flood of packets with invalid source IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack has occurred?

  • UDP flood
  • TCP session hijacking
  • TCP reset
  • TCP SYN flood

Explanation: The TCP SYN Flood attack exploits the TCP three-way handshake. The threat actor continually sends TCP SYN session request packets with a randomly spoofed source IP address to an intended target. The target device replies with a TCP SYN-ACK packet to the spoofed IP address and waits for a TCP ACK packet. Those responses never arrive. Eventually the target host is overwhelmed with half-open TCP connections and denies TCP services.

136. What term is used to describe a logical drive that can be formatted to store data?

  • volume
  • track
  • sector
  • cluster
  • partition

Explanation: Hard disk drives are organized by several physical and logical structures. Partitions are logical portions of the disk that can be formatted to store data. Partitions consist of tracks, sectors, and clusters. Tracks are concentric rings on the disk surface. Tracks are divided into sectors and multiple sectors are combined logically to form clusters

137. Which tool can be used to gather information about the different types of traffic that exist in a network?

  • RTP
  • application server
  • QoS
  • protocol analyzer

Explanation: As part of planning to grow a small network, it is important for a network administrator to survey the network to determine the different traffic types and the amount of traffic in a network. A protocol analyzer is a tool that can be used to gather this information. RTP is a protocol used in voice and video communication. QoS is a mechanism used to manage congestion and prioritize traffic. An application server is used to host applications.

138. Which action best describes a MAC address spoofing attack?

  • altering the MAC address of an attacking host to match that of a legitimate host
  • bombarding a switch with fake source MAC addresses
  • forcing the election of a rogue root bridge
  • flooding the LAN with excessive traffic

Explanation: The attacker commonly runs a program or script that sends a stream of frames to the switch so the switch keeps the incorrect (spoofed) information in the MAC address table.

139. What type of network security test uses simulated attacks to determine the feasibility of an attack as well as the possible consequences if the attack occurs?

  • penetration testing
  • network scanning
  • integrity checking
  • vulnerability scanning

Explanation: There are many tests that are used by security specialists to assess the status of a system. They include the following:
– penetration testing to determine the feasibility of attacks
– network scanning to scan for and identify open TCP ports
– integrity checking to check for changes that have occurred in the system
– vulnerability scanning to detect potential weaknesses in systems

140. Which technology would be used to create the server logs generated by network devices and reviewed by an entry level network person who works the night shift at a data center?

  • ACL
  • NAT
  • syslog
  • VPN

Explanation: Syslog is a daemon or service run on a server that accepts messages sent by network devices. These logs are frequently examined to detect inconsistencies and issues within the network.

141. In applying an ACL to a router interface, which traffic is designated as outbound?

  • traffic that is coming from the source IP address into the router
  • traffic that is leaving the router and going toward the destination host
  • traffic that is going from the destination IP address into the router
  • traffic for which the router can find no routing table entry

Explanation: Inbound and outbound are interpreted from the point of view of the router. Traffic that is designated in an inbound ACL will be denied or permitted when coming into that router interface from a source. Traffic that is designated in an outbound ACL will be denied or permitted when going out the interface to the destination.

142. Which protocol provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality services and is a type of VPN?

  • AES
  • ESP
  • IPsec
  • MD5

Explanation: IPsec services allow for authentication, integrity, access control, and confidentiality. With IPsec, the information exchanged between remote sites can be encrypted and verified. Both remote-access and site-to-site VPNs can be deployed using IPsec.

143. Match the type of cyberattackers to the description.

Explanation:

Hacktivists Make political statements in order to create an awareness of issues that are important to them
Vulnerability brokers discover exploits and report them to vendors
State-sponsored attackers Gather intelligence or commit sabotage on specific goals on behalf of their government

144. Which three security services are provided by digital signatures? (Choose three.)

  • authenticates the source
  • authenticates the destination
  • guarantees data has not changed in transit
  • provides data encryption
  • provides nonrepudiation using HMAC functions
  • provides confidentiality of digitally signed data

Explanation: Digital signatures are a mathematical technique used to provide three basic security services. Digital signatures have specific properties that enable entity authentication and data integrity. In addition, digital signatures provide nonrepudiation of the transaction. In other words, the digital signature serves as legal proof that the data exchange did take place.

145. Which statement describes the Cisco Threat Grid Glovebox?

  • It is a firewall appliance.
  • It is a network-based IDS/IPS.
  • It is a sandbox product for analyzing malware behaviors.
  • It is a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) solution to fight against malware.

Explanation: Cisco ThreatGrid Glovebox is a sandbox product for analyzing malware behaviors.

146. Match the roles in the data governance program to the description.

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

a person who oversees the data protection strategy of an organization Data protection officer
a person or organization who processes personal data on behalf of the data controller Data processor
a person who determines the purposes for which, and the way in which, personal data is processed Data controller
a person who ensures that data supports the business needs of an organization and meets regulatory requirements Data steward
a person who ensures compliance with policies and procedures, assigns the proper classification to information assets, and determines the criteria for accessing information assets Data owner
a person who implements the classification and security controls for the data in accordance with the rules set out by the data owner. Data custodian

147. A cyber criminal sends a series of maliciously formatted packets to the database server. The server cannot parse the packets and the event causes the server to crash. What is the type of attack the cyber criminal launches?

  • packet Injection
  • SQL injection
  • DoS
  • man-in-the-middle

Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist needs to be familiar with the characteristics of the different types of malware and attacks that threaten an organization.

148. A company implements a security policy that ensures that a file sent from the headquarters office to the branch office can only be opened with a predetermined code. This code is changed every day. Which two algorithms can be used to achieve this task? (Choose two.)

  • MD5
  • AES
  • 3DES
  • SHA-1
  • HMAC

Explanation: The task to ensure that only authorized personnel can open a file is data confidentiality, which can be implemented with encryption. AES and 3DES are two encryption algorithms. HMAC can be used for ensuring origin authentication. MD5 and SHA-1 can be used to ensure data integrity.

149. What is the purpose of the policy element in a computer security incident response capability of an organization, as recommended by NIST?

  • It details how incidents should be handled based on the organizational mission and functions.
  • It defines how the incident response teams will communicate with the rest of the organization and with other organizations.
  • It provides metrics for measuring the incident response capability and effectiveness.
  • It provides a roadmap for maturing the incident response capability.

Explanation: NIST recommends creating policies, plans, and procedures for establishing and maintaining a CSIRC. A purpose of the policy element is to detail how incidents should be handled based on the mission and functions of an organization.

150. Which key component of virtualization allows for running multiple independent operating systems on one physical computing system?

  • VM
  • VDI
  • container
  • hypervisor

Explanation: A hypervisor is a software or hardware program that builds a virtualization environment to support multiple independent virtual machines on one physical system. It is a key component of virtualization.

151. Mutual authentication can prevent which type of attack?

  • man-in-the-middle
  • wireless sniffing
  • wireless IP spoofing
  • wireless poisoning

Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of the technologies and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization from threats and vulnerabilities.

152. How does network scanning help assess operations security?

  • It can log abnormal activity.
  • It can detect weak or blank passwords.
  • It can detect open TCP ports on network systems.
  • It can simulate attacks from malicious sources.

Explanation: Network scanning can help a network administrator strengthen the security of the network and systems by identifying open TCP and UDP ports that could be targets of an attack.

153. Which type of access control applies the strictest access control and is commonly used in military or mission critical applications?

  • attribute-based access control (ABAC)
  • discretionary access control (DAC)
  • mandatory access control (MAC)
  • Non-discretionary access control

Explanation: Access control models are used to define the access controls implemented to protect corporate IT resources. The different types of access control models are as follows:

  • Mandatory access control (MAC) – The strictest access control that is typically used in military or mission critical applications.
  • Discretionary access control (DAC) – Allows users to control access to their data as owners of that data. Access control lists (ACLs) or other security measures may be used to specify who else may have access to the information.
  • Non-discretionary access control – Also known as role-based access control (RBAC). Allows access based on the role and responsibilities of the individual within the organization.
  • Attribute-based access control (ABAC) – Allows access based on the attributes of the resource to be accessed, the user accessing the resource, and the environmental factors such as the time of day.

154. Which command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a specific host name?

  • nslookup
  • ipconfig / displaydns
  • tracert
  • net

Explanation: The nslookup command was created to allow a user to manually query a DNS server to resolve a given host name. The ipconfig /displaydns command only displays previously resolved DNS entries. The tracert command was created to examine the path that packets take as they cross a network and can resolve a hostname by automatically querying a DNS server. The net command is used to manage network computers, servers, printers, and network drives.

155. Which type of networks poses increasing challenges to cybersecurity specialists due to the growth of BYOD on campus?

  • sneaker net
  • wireless networks
  • wired networks
  • virtual networks

Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist must be familiar with the types of technologies used to store, transmit, and process data.

156. Which combination of WLAN authentication and encryption is recommended as a best practice for home users?

  • WEP and TKIP
  • WPA2 and AES
  • EAP and AES
  • WPA and PSK
  • WEP and RC4

Explanation: WPA2 is the Wi-Fi alliance version of 802.11i, the industry standard for authentication. Neither WEP nor WPA possess the level of authentication provided by WPA2. AES aligns with WPA2 as an encryption standard, and is stronger than TKIP or RC4. PSK refers to pre-shared passwords, an authentication method that can be used by either WPA or WPA2. EAP is intended for use with enterprise networks which use a RADIUS server.

157. In addressing an identified risk, which strategy aims to shift some of the risk to other parties?

  • risk sharing
  • risk retention
  • risk reduction
  • risk avoidance

Explanation: There are four potential strategies for responding to risks that have been identified:

  • Risk avoidance – Stop performing the activities that create risk.
  • Risk reduction – Decrease the risk by taking measures to reduce vulnerability.
  • Risk sharing – Shift some of the risk to other parties.
  • Risk retention – Accept the risk and its consequences.

158. Which operator is used in an ACL statement to match packets of a specific application?

  • eq
  • lt
  • gt
  • established

Explanation: An example of an ACL that filters for FTP is as follows:
access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
The operator (eq) toward the end of the ACL lines is used to match a specific port/service that is specified immediately following the eq operator.

159. What is the purpose of a personal firewall on a computer?

  • to protect the hardware against fire hazard
  • to filter the traffic that is moving in and out of the PC
  • to protect the computer from viruses and malware
  • to increase the speed of the Internet connection

Explanation: The purpose of a firewall is to filter the traffic that is moving in and out of the PC. A computer firewall cannot deny all illegal traffic from a computer or increase the speed of any connection. It is also not able to protect hardware against fire hazards.

160. A network administrator is trying to download a valid file from an internal server. However, the process triggers an alert on a NMS tool. What condition describes this alert?

  • false negative
  • false positive
  • true positive
  • true negative

Explanation: Alerts can be classified as follows:

True Positive: The alert has been verified to be an actual security incident.
False Positive: The alert does not indicate an actual security incident. Benign activity that results in a false positive is sometimes referred to as a benign trigger.

An alternative situation is that an alert was not generated. The absence of an alert can be classified as:

True Negative: No security incident has occurred. The activity is benign.
False Negative: An undetected incident has occurred.

161. Which Windows host log event type describes the successful operation of an application, driver, or service?

  • error
  • warning
  • information
  • success audit

Explanation: Various Windows host logs can have different event types. The Information event type records an event that describes the successful operation of an application, driver, or service.

162. In Windows Firewall, when is the Domain profile applied?

  • when the host accesses the Internet
  • when the host checks emails from an enterprise email server
  • when the host is connected to a trusted network such as an internal business network
  • when the host is connected to an isolated network from the Internet by another security device

Explanation: The Domain profile in Windows Firewall configuration is for connections to a trusted network, such as a business network, that is assumed to have an adequate security infrastructure.

163. Which statement describes the threat-vulnerability (T-V) pairing?

  • It is the advisory notice from a vulnerability research center.
  • It is the comparison between known malware and system risks.
  • It is the detection of malware against a central vulnerability research center.
  • It is the identification of threats and vulnerabilities and the matching of threats with vulnerabilities.

Explanation: A mandatory activity in risk assessment is the identification of threats and vulnerabilities and the matching of threats with vulnerabilities, also called threat-vulnerability (T-V) pairing.

164. A user is purchasing a new server for the company data center. The user wants disk striping with parity on three disks. Which RAID level should the user implement?

  • 0
  • 1
  • 5
  • 1+0

Explanation: RAID 5 striping with parity would be the best choice.

165. What is required in order to connect a Wi-Fi enabled laptop to a WPA secured wireless network?

  • a security encryption key
  • a MAC address
  • a username and password
  • an updated wireless driver

Explanation: Regardless of the levels of security configured on a WLAN, a WPA secured WLAN always requires the use of an encryption key. Without the proper key, a device cannot connect to the network.

166. A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

  • accounting
  • automation
  • authorization
  • authentication

Explanation: After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.

167. What worm mitigation phase involves actively disinfecting infected systems?

  • quarantine
  • inoculation
  • treatment
  • containment

Explanation: The four phases of worm mitigation are:

  • Containment
  • Inoculation
  • Quarantine
  • Treatment

Disinfecting systems is accomplished in the treatment phase and involves terminating the worm process, removing infected files, and patching vulnerabilities exploited by the worm.

168. What is the purpose of mobile device management (MDM) software?

  • It is used to create a security policy.
  • It is used by threat actors to penetrate the system.
  • It is used to identify potential mobile device vulnerabilities.
  • It is used to implement security policies, setting, and software configurations on mobile devices.

Explanation: Mobile device management (MDM) software is used with mobile devices so that corporate IT personnel can track the devices, implement security settings, as well as control software configurations.

169. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a network endlessly?

  • Time-to-Live
  • Sequence Number
  • Acknowledgment Number
  • Differentiated Services

Explanation: The value of the Time-to-Live (TTL) field in the IPv4 header is used to limit the lifetime of a packet. The sending host sets the initial TTL value; which is decreased by one each time the packet is processed by a router. If the TTL field decrements to zero, the router discards the packet and sends an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Time Exceeded message to the source IP address. The Differentiated Services (DS) field is used to determine the priority of each packet. Sequence Number and Acknowledgment Number are two fields in the TCP header.

170. Which cloud security domain describes controls related to securing the data itself?

  • Application Security
  • Security as a Service
  • Infrastructure Security
  • Data Security and Encryption

Explanation: The Security Guidance for Critical Areas of Focus in Cloud Computing v4 document developed by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) covers 14 domains of cloud security. Some of these domains are:

  • Infrastructure Security – describes cloud-specific aspects of infrastructure security and the foundation for operating securely in the cloud.
  • Data Security and Encryption – describes those controls related to securing the data itself, of which encryption is one of the most important.
  • Application Security – provides guidance on how to securely build and deploy applications in cloud computing environments, specifically for PaaS and IaaS.
  • Security as a Service – covers the continually evolving security services delivered from the cloud.

171. A cybersecurity analyst has been called to a crime scene that contains several technology items including a computer. Which technique will be used so that the information found on the computer can be used in court?

  • log collection
  • rootki
  • Tor
  • unaltered disk image

Explanation: A normal file copy does not recover all data on a storage device so an unaltered disk image is commonly made. An unaltered disk image preserves the original evidence, thus preventing inadvertent alteration during the discovery phase. It also allows recreation of the original evidence.

172. Which of the following are foundational principles of the cybersecurity domain? (Choose three.)

  • Security
  • Confidentiality
  • Policy
  • Integrity
  • Encryption
  • Availability

Explanation: There are three foundational principles of security. These are confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Together these three principles make up the security triad.

173. Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of adding the established argument to the end of the ACE?

  • Any traffic is allowed to reach the 192.168.254.0 255.255.254.0 network.
  • Any IP traffic is allowed to reach the 192.168.254.0 255.255.254.0 network as long as it is in response to an originated request.
  • 192.168.254.0 /23 traffic is allowed to reach any network.
  • Any TCP traffic is allowed to reach the 192.168.254.0 255.255.254.0 network if it is in response to an originated request.

Explanation: The established argument allows TCP return traffic from established connections to be sent on an outgoing interface to a network.

174. Which service is provided by the Cisco Talos Group?

  • preventing online malware from affecting end user devices
  • preventing viruses from affecting end user devices
  • scanning updates for malware code
  • collecting information about active, existing, and emerging threats

Explanation: The Cisco Talos group collects information about active, existing, and emerging threats which can be used by Cisco Security products in real time to provide fast and effective security solutions.

175. A social media site is describing a security breach in a sensitive branch of a national bank. In the post, it refers to a vulnerability. What statement describes that term?

  • The potential damage to the organization that is caused by the threat.
  • The actions that are taken to protect assets by mitigating a threat or reducing risk.
  • The likelihood that a particular threat will exploit a vulnerability of an asset and result in an undesirable consequence.
  • A weakness in a system or its design that could be exploited by a threat.

Explanation: Review terms and descriptions from module 2.

176. Which protocol is exploited by cybercriminals who create malicious iFrames?

  • DNS
  • DHCP
  • HTTP
  • ARP

Explanation: An HTML element known as an inline frame or iFrame allows the browser to load a different web page from another source.

177. City Center Hospital provides WLAN connectivity to its employees. The security policy requires that communication between employee mobile devices and the access points must be encrypted. What is the purpose of this requirement?

  • to prevent a computer virus on a mobile device from infecting other devices
  • to prevent the contents of intercepted messages from being read
  • to block denial of service attacks originating on the Internet
  • to ensure that users who connect to an AP are employees of the hospital

Explanation: Encrypting data during communication prevents the contents from intercepted communications from being read.

178. In a comparison of biometric systems, what is the crossover error rate?

  • rate of acceptability and rate of false negatives
  • rate of false negatives and rate of false positives
  • rate of false positives and rate of acceptability
  • rate of rejection and rate of false negatives

Explanation: In comparing biometric systems, there are several important factors to consider including accuracy, speed or throughput rate, and acceptability to users.

179. Which statement describes the Cyber Kill Chain?

  • It uses the OSI model to describe cyberattacks at each of the seven layers.
  • It identifies the steps that adversaries must complete to accomplish their goals.
  • It specifies common TCP/IP protocols used to fight against cyberattacks.
  • It is a set of metrics designed to create a way to describe security incidents in a structured and repeatable way.

Explanation: The Cyber Kill Chain was developed to identify and prevent cyber intrusions by specifying what threat actors must complete to accomplish their goals.

180. What term is used to describe concealing data in another file such as a graphic, audio, or other text file?

  • masking
  • obfuscation
  • steganography
  • hiding

Explanation: Steganography conceals data in a file such as a graphic, audio, or other text file and is used to prevent extra attention to the encrypted data because the data is not easily viewed.

181. A breach occurs in a company that processes credit card information. Which industry specific law governs credit card data protection?

  • SOX
  • ECPA
  • GLBA
  • PCI DSS

Explanation: The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) governs how to protect credit card data as merchants and banks exchange transactions.

182. Which classification indicates that an alert is verified as an actual security incident?

  • true positive
  • true negative
  • false positive
  • false negative

Explanation: Alerts can be classified as follows:

True Positive: The alert has been verified to be an actual security incident.
False Positive: The alert does not indicate an actual security incident. Benign activity that results in a false positive is sometimes referred to as a benign trigger.

An alternative situation is that an alert was not generated. The absence of an alert can be classified as follows:

True Negative: No security incident has occurred. The activity is benign.
False Negative: An undetected incident has occurred.

183. Which two attacks target web servers through exploiting possible vulnerabilities of input functions used by an application? (Choose two.)

  • SQL injection
  • port scanning
  • port redirection
  • trust exploitation
  • cross-site scripting

Explanation: When a web application uses input fields to collect data from clients, threat actors may exploit possible vulnerabilities for entering malicious commands. The malicious commands that are executed through the web application might affect the OS on the web server. SQL injection and cross-site scripting are two different types of command injection attacks.

184. What is the first step in configuring a Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall via the CLI?

  • Create zones.
  • Define traffic classes.
  • Define firewall policies.
  • Assign policy maps to zone pairs.
  • Assign router interfaces to zones.

Explanation: The steps for configuring a Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall are as follows:
1. Create zones.
2. Define traffic classes.
3. Define firewall policies.
4. Apply policy maps to zone pairs.
5. Assign router interfaces to zones.

185. Which type of firewall makes use of a proxy server to connect to remote servers on behalf of clients?

  • stateful firewall
  • stateless firewall
  • packet filtering firewall
  • application gateway firewall

Explanation: An application gateway firewall, also called a proxy firewall, filters information at Layers 3, 4, 5, and 7 of the OSI model. It uses a proxy server to connect to remote servers on behalf of clients. Remote servers will see only a connection from the proxy server, not from the individual clients.

186. What is a function of SNMP?

  • provides statistical analysis on packets flowing through a Cisco router or multilayer switch
  • provides a message format for communication between network device managers and agents
  • captures packets entering and exiting the network interface card
  • synchronizes the time across all devices on the network

Explanation: SNMP is an application layer protocol that allows administrators to manage devices on the network by providing a messaging format for communication between network device managers and agents.

187. Which step in the Vulnerability Management Life Cycle categorizes assets into groups or business units, and assigns a business value to asset groups based on their criticality to business operations?

  • report
  • assess
  • remediate
  • prioritize assets

Explanation: The steps in the Vulnerability Management Life Cycle include these:

  • Discover – inventory all assets across the network and identify host details, including operating systems and open services to identify vulnerabilities
  • Prioritize assets – categorize assets into groups or business units, and assign a business value to asset groups based on their criticality to business operations
  • Assess – determine a baseline risk profile to eliminate risks based on asset criticality, vulnerability threats, and asset classification
  • Report – measure the level of business risk associated with your assets according to your security policies. Document a security plan, monitor suspicious activity, and describe known vulnerabilities
  • Remediate – prioritize according to business risk and fix vulnerabilities in order of risk
  • Verify – verify that threats have been eliminated through follow-up audits

188. How is a source IP address used in a standard ACL?

  • It is the criterion that is used to filter traffic.
  • It is used to determine the default gateway of the router that has the ACL applied.
  • It is the address to be used by a router to determine the best path to forward packets.
  • It is the address that is unknown, so the ACL must be placed on the interface closest to the source address.

Explanation: The only filter that can be applied with a standard ACL is the source IP address. An extended ACL is used to filter on such traffic as the source IP address, destination IP address, type of traffic, and type of message.

189. What is one benefit of using a next-generation firewall rather than a stateful firewall?

  • integrated use of an intrusion prevention system (IPS)
  • support of TCP-based packet filtering
  • reactive protection against Internet threats
  • support of logging

Explanation: Stateful firewalls and next-generation firewalls provide better log information than a packet filtering firewall, both defend against spoofing, and both filter unwanted traffic. Next-generation firewalls provide the following benefits over stateful firewalls:

  • Granularity control within application​s
  • Website and application traffic filtering based on site reputation
  • Proactive rather than reactive protection from Internet threats
  • Enforcement of security policies based on multiple criteria including user, device, role, application, and threat profile
  • Improved performance with NAT, VPN, and stateful inspections
  • Integrated IPS

190. Which task describes threat attribution?

  • evaluating the server alert data
  • obtaining the most volatile evidence
  • determining who is responsible for the attack
  • reporting the incident to the proper authorities

Explanation: Threat attribution refers to determining the individual, organization, or nation responsible for a successful intrusion or attack incident. The security investigation team correlates all the evidence in order to identify commonalities between tactics, techniques, and procedures (TPPs) for known and unknown threat actors.

191. Before data is sent out for analysis, which technique can be used to replace sensitive data in nonproduction environments to protect the underlying information?

  • steganography
  • data masking substitution
  • steganalysis
  • software obfuscation

Explanation: Technologies exist to confuse attackers by changing data and using techniques to hide the original data.

192. Which two options are window managers for Linux? (Choose two.)

  • File Explorer
  • Gnome
  • Kali
  • KDE
  • PenTesting

Explanation: The X Window System provides the basic framework for a GUI, but the GUI itself varies greatly between different distributions. Two window managers are Gnome and KDE.

193. Which cybersecurity weapon scans for use of default passwords, missing patches, open ports, misconfigurations, and active IP addresses?

  • packet sniffers
  • password crackers
  • vulnerability scanners
  • packet analyzers

Explanation: There are many tools that a cybersecurity specialist uses to evaluate the potential vulnerabilities of an organization.

194. As described by the SANS Institute, which attack surface includes the use of social engineering?

  • human attack surface
  • Internet attack surface
  • network attack surface
  • software attack surface

Explanation: The SANS Institute describes three components of the attack surface:

  • Network Attack Surface – exploitation of vulnerabilities in networks
  • Software Attack Surface – exploitation of vulnerabilities in web, cloud, or host-based software applications
  • Human Attack Surface – exploitation of weaknesses in user behavior

195. What is the benefit of a defense-in-depth approach?

  • The effectiveness of other security measures is not impacted when a security mechanism fails.
  • The need for firewalls is eliminated.
  • All network vulnerabilities are mitigated.
  • Only a single layer of security at the network core is required.

Explanation: The benefit of the defense-in-depth approach is that network defenses are implemented in layers so that failure of any single security mechanism does not impact other secuirty measures.

196. What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication server?

  • WEP
  • WPA Personal
  • WPA2 Personal
  • WPA2 Enterprise

Explanation: WPA2 Enterprise relies on an external RADIUS server to authenticate clients when they attempt to connect. WEP and WPA/WPA2 Personal both use a pre-shared key that the clients must know in order to authenticate.

197. Which network service synchronizes the time across all devices on the network?

  • NTP
  • SNMP
  • NetFlow
  • syslog

Explanation: There are two methods that can be used to set date and time settings on network devices. Manual configuration and automatically using the Network Time Protocol (NTP). NTP keeps the time across all devices synchronized by using a hierarchical system of sources.

198. When establishing a network profile for an organization, which element describes the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination?

  • total throughput
  • session duration
  • routing protocol convergence
  • bandwidth of the Internet connection

Explanation: A network profile should include some important elements, such as the following:

  • Total throughput – the amount of data passing from a given source to a given destination in a given period of time
  • Session duration – the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination
  • Ports used – a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
  • Critical asset address space – the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data

199. In ZPF design, what is described as the self zone?

  • a predefined cluster of servers with configured interfaces
  • a predefined cluster of routers with configured interfaces
  • the outward facing interface on the edge router
  • the router itself, including all interfaces with assigned IP addresses

Explanation: The self zone is the router itself and includes all the IP addresses assigned to the router interfaces.

200. Which statement accurately characterizes the evolution of threats to network security?

  • Internal threats can cause even greater damage than external threats.
  • Internet architects planned for network security from the beginning.
  • Early Internet users often engaged in activities that would harm other users.
  • Threats have become less sophisticated while the technical knowledge needed by an attacker has grown.

Explanation: Internal threats can be intentional or accidental and cause greater damage than external threats because the internal user has direct access to the internal corporate network and corporate data.

201. What is an advantage of SSID cloaking?​

  • It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is of no concern.
  • Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.
  • SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them.
  • It is the best way to secure a wireless network.

Explanation: SSID cloaking is a weak security feature that is performed by APs and some wireless routers by allowing the SSID beacon frame to be disabled. Although clients have to manually identify the SSID to be connected to the network, the SSID can be easily discovered. The best way to secure a wireless network is to use authentication and encryption systems. SSID cloaking does not provide free Internet access in public locations, but an open system authentication could be used in that situation.

202. What term is used to refer to readable data in the context of the data encryption process?

  • plaintext
  • ciphertext
  • opentext
  • cleantext

Explanation: Readable data is called plaintext, while the encrypted version is encrypted text or ciphertext.

203. What is the objective the threat actor in establishing a two-way communication channel between the target system and a CnC infrastructure?

  • to launch a buffer overflow attack
  • to send user data stored on the target to the threat actor
  • to steal network bandwidth from the network where the target is located
  • to allow the threat actor to issue commands to the software that is installed on the target

Explanation: In the command and control phase of the Cyber Kill Chain, the threat actor establishes command and control (CnC) with the target system. With the two-way communication channel, the threat actor is able to issue commands to the malware software installed on the target.

204. When an inbound Internet-traffic ACL is being implemented, what should be included to prevent the spoofing of internal networks?

  • ACEs to prevent HTTP traffic
  • ACEs to prevent ICMP traffic
  • ACEs to prevent SNMP traffic
  • ACEs to prevent broadcast address traffic
  • ACEs to prevent traffic from private address spaces

Explanation: Common ACEs to assist with antispoofing include blocking packets that have a source address in the 127.0.0.0/8 range, any private address, or any multicast addresses. Furthermore, the administrator should not allow any outbound packets with a source address other than a valid address that is used in the internal networks of the organization.

205. What is the purpose of a digital certificate?

  • It guarantees that a website has not been hacked.
  • It provides proof that data has a traditional signature attached.
  • It ensures that the person who is gaining access to a network device is authorized.
  • It authenticates a website and establishes a secure connection to exchange confidential data.

Explanation: Digital signatures commonly use digital certificates that are used to verify the identity of the originator in order to authenticate a vendor website and establish an encrypted connection to exchange confidential data. One such example is when a person logs into a financial institution from a web browser.

206. As described by the SANS Institute, which attack surface includes the exploitation of vulnerabilities in wired and wireless protocols used by IoT devices?

  • human attack surface
  • Internet attack surface
  • network attack surface
  • software attack surface

Explanation: The SANS Institute describes three components of the attack surface:

  • Network Attack Surface – exploitation of vulnerabilities in networks
  • Software Attack Surface – exploitation of vulnerabilities in web, cloud, or host-based software applications
  • Human Attack Surface – exploitation of weaknesses in user behavior

207. Why is WPA2 better than WPA?

  • reduced processing time
  • supports TKIP
  • mandatory use of AES algorithms
  • reduced keyspace

Explanation: A good way to remember wireless security standards is to consider how they evolved from WEP to WPA, then to WPA2. Each evolution increased security measures.

208. What is a key difference between the data captured by NetFlow and data captured by Wireshark?

  • NetFlow provides transaction data whereas Wireshark provides session data.
  • NetFlow data is analyzed by tcpdump whereas Wireshark data is analyzed by nfdump.
  • NetFlow collects metadata from a network flow whereas Wireshark captures full data packets.
  • NetFlow data shows network flow contents whereas Wireshark data shows network flow statistics.

Explanation: Wireshark captures the entire contents of a packet. NetFlow does not. Instead, NetFlow collects metadata, or data about the flow.

209. A cybersecurity analyst is performing a CVSS assessment on an attack where a web link was sent to several employees. Once clicked, an internal attack was launched. Which CVSS Base Metric Group Exploitability metric is used to document that the user had to click on the link in order for the attack to occur?

  • availability requirement
  • integrity requirement
  • scope
  • user interaction

Explanation: The CVSS Base Metric Group has the following metrics: attack vector, attack complexity, privileges required, user interaction, and scope. The user interaction metric expresses the presence or absence of the requirement for user interaction in order for an exploit to be successful.

210. In which TCP attack is the cybercriminal attempting to overwhelm a target host with half-open TCP connections?

  • reset attack
  • port scan attack
  • SYN flood attack
  • session hijacking attack

Explanation: In a TCP SYN flood attack, the attacker sends to the target host a continuous flood of TCP SYN session requests with a spoofed source IP address. The target host responds with a TCP-SYN-ACK to each of the SYN session requests and waits for a TCP ACK that will never arrive. Eventually the target is overwhelmed with half-open TCP connections.

211. Which term is used for bulk advertising emails flooded to as many end users as possible?

  • Phishing
  • Brute force
  • Spam
  • Adware

Explanation: Spam is annoying and unwanted bulk email that is sent to as many end users as possible.

212. What term describes a set of software tools designed to increase the privileges of a user or to grant access to the user to portions of the operating system that should not normally be allowed?

  • compiler
  • package manager
  • penetration testing
  • rootkit

Explanation: A rootkit is used by an attacker to secure a backdoor to a compromised computer, grant access to portions of the operating system normally not permitted, or increase the privileges of a user.

213. What is the purpose of a DMZ?

  • It analyzes traffic for intrusion attempts and sends reports to management stations.
  • It creates an encrypted and authenticated tunnel for remote hosts to access the internal network.
  • It provides secure connectivity for clients that connect to the internal network through a wireless LAN.
  • It allows external hosts to access specific company servers while maintaining the security restrictions for the internal network.

Explanation: The DMZ is an area of the network that is accessible to both internal and external users. It is more secure than the external network but not as secure as the internal network. It allows external hosts to access internal servers.

214. Which technique can be used to leverage virtual network topologies to run smaller and more isolated networks without incurring additional hardware costs?

  • shadow IT
  • fog computing
  • edge computing
  • microsegmentation

Explanation: Microsegmentation (also referred to as hypersegregation) leverages virtual network topologies to run smaller and more isolated networks without incurring additional hardware costs. Microsegmentation techniques allow for more granular control of security for traffic and workflows within the cloud.

215. An administrator discovers that a user is accessing a newly established website that may be detrimental to company security. What action should the administrator take first in terms of the security policy?

  • Revise the AUP immediately and get all users to sign the updated AUP.
  • Create a firewall rule blocking the respective website.
  • Immediately suspend the network privileges of the user.
  • Ask the user to stop immediately and inform the user that this constitutes grounds for dismissal.

Explanation: One of the most common security policy components is an AUP. This can also be referred to as an appropriate use policy. This component defines what users are allowed and not allowed to do on the various system components. This includes the type of traffic that is allowed on the network. The AUP should be as explicit as possible to avoid misunderstanding.

216. What device would be used as the third line of defense in a defense-in-depth approach?

  • firewall
  • edge router
  • internal router
  • host

Explanation: In a defense-in-depth approach, the edge router would form the first line of defense. The firewall would be the second line of defense followed by the internal router making up the third line of defense.

217. Which file system is the primary file system used by Apple in current Macintosh computers?

  • ext2
  • ext3
  • CDFS
  • HFS
  • APFS

Explanation: To use Force Quit, right-click on the application icon that is not responding from the Dock and close the application.

218. A threat actor has identified the potential vulnerability of the web server of an organization and is building an attack. What will the threat actor possibly do to build an attack weapon?

  • Create a point of persistence by adding services.
  • Install a webshell on the web server for persistent access.
  • Collect credentials of the web server developers and administrators.
  • Obtain an automated tool in order to deliver the malware payload through the vulnerability.

Explanation: One tactic of weaponization used by a threat actor after the vulnerability is identified is to obtain an automated tool to deliver the malware payload through the vulnerability.

219. What is the purpose of the cd∖ command?

  • changes directory to the root directory
  • changes directory to the next highest directory
  • changes directory to the previous directory
  • changes directory to the next lower directory

Explanation: CLI commands are typed into the Command Prompt window of the Windows operating system. The cd\ command is used to change the directory to the Windows root directory.

220. Which cloud security domain covers cloud-specific aspects of infrastructure security and foundations for operating securely in the cloud?

  • Application Security
  • Infrastructure Security
  • Data Security and Encryption
  • Management Plane and Business Continuity

Explanation: The Security Guidance for Critical Areas of Focus in Cloud Computing v4 document developed by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) covers 14 domains of cloud security. Some of these domains are:

  • Infrastructure Security – describes cloud-specific aspects of infrastructure security and the foundation for operating securely in the cloud.
  • Data Security and Encryption – describes those controls related to securing the data itself, of which encryption is one of the most important.
  • Application Security – provides guidance on how to securely build and deploy applications in cloud computing environments, specifically for PaaS and IaaS.
  • Management Plane and Business Continuity – describes the need to secure the cloud computing management plane and business continuity and disaster recovery procedures.

221. A user calls the help desk complaining that the password to access the wireless network has changed without warning. The user is allowed to change the password, but an hour later, the same thing occurs. What might be happening in this situation?

  • rogue access point
  • password policy
  • user error
  • user laptop
  • weak password

Explanation: Man-in-the-middle attacks are a threat that results in lost credentials and data. These type of attacks can occur for different reasons including traffic sniffing.

222. Which access control should the IT department use to restore a system back to its normal state?

  • corrective
  • detective
  • preventive
  • compensative

Explanation: Access control prevents an unauthorized user from gaining access to sensitive data and networked systems. There are several technologies used to implement effective access control strategies.

223. Which statement describes an operational characteristic of NetFlow?

  • NetFlow captures the entire contents of a packet.
  • NetFlow can provide services for user access control.
  • NetFlow flow records can be viewed by the tcpdump tool.
  • NetFlow collects basic information about the packet flow, not the flow data itself.

Explanation: NetFlow does not capture the entire contents of a packet. Instead, NetFlow collects metadata, or data about the flow, not the flow data itself. NetFlow information can be viewed with tools such as nfdump and FlowViewer.

224. What is the workforce framework category that includes highly specialized review and evaluation of incoming cybersecurity information to determine if it is useful for intelligence?

  • Protect and Defend
  • Oversight and Development
  • Securely Provision
  • Analyze

Explanation: The “Analyze” category of the workforce framework includes specialty areas responsible for highly specialized review and evaluation of incoming cybersecurity information to determine its usefulness.

225. The entrepreneur is concerned about company employees having uninterrupted access to important resources and data. Which of the CIA triad components would address the concern?

  • authentication
  • availability
  • confidentiality
  • integrity

Explanation: Communications security is usually discussed using the CIA triad: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals, devices, entities, or processes can access sensitive information. Integrity protects data from unauthorized alteration. Availability provides uninterrupted access for authorized users to important resources and data.

226. What type of attack targets an SQL database using the input field of a user?

  • XML injection
  • Cross-site scripting
  • SQL injection
  • buffer overflow

Explanation: A criminal can insert a malicious SQL statement in an entry field on a website where the system does not filter the user input correctly.

227. When implementing components into an enterprise network, what is the purpose of a firewall?

  • A firewall is a system that stores vast quantities of sensitive and business-critical information.
  • A firewall is a system that enforces an access control policy between internal corporate networks and external networks.
  • A firewall is a system that inspects network traffic and makes forwarding decisions based solely on Layer 2 Ethernet MAC addresses.
  • A firewall is a system that is designed to secure, monitor, and manage mobile devices, including corporate-owned devices and employee-owned devices.

Explanation: A firewall is a system that enforces an access control policy and prevents the exposure of sensitive hosts, resources, and applications to untrusted users.

228. What network monitoring technology enables a switch to copy and forward traffic sent and received on multiple interfaces out another interface toward a network analysis device?

  • NetFlow
  • network tap
  • port mirroring
  • SNMP

Explanation: When enabled on a switch, port mirroring copies frames sent and recieved by the switch and forwards them to another port, which has a analysis device attached.

229. A company decides to purchase a device capable of managing load balancing so that traffic will be distributed between their servers. What could be a potential problem using the new device on the network?

  • It will require the purchase of more servers so that existing servers are not overwhelmed.
  • The LBM probe messages may appear as suspicious traffic.
  • The traffic will require more bandwidth to send to multiple servers.
  • All links to redundant servers will require encrypted tunneling protocols.
  • It will cause extra traffic going to a server resource that is not available.

Explanation: Load balancing manager (LBM) devices distribute traffic between devices or network paths to prevent overwhelming network resources. LBM devices may send probes to different servers to detect that the servers are operating. These probes can appear to be suspicious traffic.

230. Which type of DNS attack involves the cybercriminal compromising a parent domain and creating multiple subdomains to be used during the attacks?

  • cache poisoning
  • amplification and reflection
  • tunneling
  • shadowing

Explanation: Two threats to DNS are DNS shadowing and DNS tunneling attacks. DNS shadowing attacks compromise a parent domain and then the cybercriminal creates subdomains to be used in attacks. DNS tunneling attacks build botnets to bypass traditional security solutions. Three threats to DNS open resolvers are cache poisoning, amplification and reflection, and resource utilization attacks.

231. Which statement describes the use of certificate classes in the PKI?

  • The lower the class number, the more trusted the certificate.
  • A vendor must issue only one class of certificates when acting as a CA.
  • A class 5 certificate is more trustworthy than a class 4 certificate.
  • Email security is provided by the vendor, not by a certificate.

Explanation: The higher the certificate number, the more trustworthy the certificate. Class 1 certificates are for individuals, with a focus on email verification. An enterprise can act as its own CA and implement PKI for internal use. In that situation, the vendor can issue certificates as needed for various purposes.​

232. An administrator is troubleshooting NetBIOS name resolution on a Windows PC. What command line utility can be used to do this?

  • ipconfig
  • arp
  • netstat
  • nbtstat

Explanation: The nbtstat command line utility can be used to troubleshoot NetBIOS name resolution problems in a Windows system.

233. A security incident has been filed and an employee believes that someone has been on the computer since the employee left last night. The employee states that the computer was turned off before the employee left for the evening. The computer is running slowly and applications are acting strangely. Which Microsoft Windows tool would be used by the security analyst to determine if and when someone logged on to the computer after working hours?

  • Task Manager
  • PowerShell
  • Performance Monitor
  • Event Viewer

Explanation: Event Viewer is used to investigate the history of application, security, and system events. Events show the date and time that the event occurred along with the source of the event. If a cybersecurity analyst has the address of the Windows computer targeted or the date and time that a security breach occurred, the analyst could use Event Viewer to document and prove what occurred on the computer.

234. What is an IPS signature?

  • It is the timestamp that is applied to logged security events and alarms.
  • It is the authorization that is required to implement a security policy.
  • It is a set of rules used to detect typical intrusive activity.
  • It is a security script that is used to detect unknown threats.

Explanation: An IPS signature uniquely identifies specific malware, protocol anomalies, or malicious traffic. IPS sensors are tuned to look for matching signatures or abnormal traffic patterns. IPS signatures are conceptually similar to the virus.dat file used by virus scanners.

235. Which AAA component can be established using token cards?

  • accounting
  • authorization
  • auditing
  • authentication

Explanation: The authentication component of AAA is established using username and password combinations, challenge and response questions, and token cards. The authorization component of AAA determines which resources the user can access and which operations the user is allowed to perform. The accounting and auditing component of AAA keeps track of how network resources are used.

236. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that an attacker has used a specific technique that affects the TCP three-way handshake. What is the name of this type of network attack?

  • SYN flood
  • DDoS
  • DNS poisoning
  • session hijacking

Explanation: The TCP SYN flood attack exploits the TCP three-way handshake. The threat actor continually sends TCP SYN session request packets with a randomly spoofed source IP address to an intended target.

237. Which service is offered by the U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) that enables real-time exchange of cyberthreat indicators between the U.S. Federal Government and the private sector?

  • AIS
  • FireEye
  • CVE
  • STIX

Explanation: The U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) offers a free service called Automated Indicator Sharing (AIS) which enables the real-time exchange of cyberthreat indicators (e.g., malicious IP addresses, the sender address of a phishing email, etc.) between the U.S. Federal Government and the private sector.

238. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

  • Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.
  • Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.
  • Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.
  • Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

Explanation: Because the new deny ACE is a host address that falls within the existing 172.16.0.0 network that is permitted, the router rejects the command and displays an error message. For the new deny ACE to take effect, it must be manually configured by the administrator with a sequence number that is less than 10.

 

 

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