Networking Essentials (Version 2.0) Final Exam SD Answers

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Networking Essentials: Course Final Exam Answers

Networking Essentials ( Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam SD Answers

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1. Match the type of malware with the definition.

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q1

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q1

2. An intruder tries a large number of possibilities in rapid succession to guess a password. As a result, other users on the network are locked out. What type of attack has occurred?

  • brute force
  • ping of death
  • DDoS
  • SYN flooding

Explanation: In a brute force attack, an unauthorized person will try to gain access to a system by sending as many passwords as possible as rapidly as possible.

3. Which three attacks exploit human behavior? (Choose three.)

  • zombies
  • vishing
  • phishing
  • brute force
  • malware
  • pretexting

Explanation: Attacks aimed at exploiting human behavior such as pretexting, phishing, and vishing are commonly used by hackers to obtain information directly from authorized users.​​

4. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on a small wireless router?

  • It translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.
  • It allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.
  • It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.
  • It identifies the wireless LAN.
  • It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

Explanation: WEP is used to encrypt data between the wireless client and the access point. DNS translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names. NAT translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address. An SSID allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.

5. Which solution allows external users to access only an internal FTP server on a private network?

  • dynamic NAT
  • NAT with overload
  • port forwarding
  • static NAT

Explanation: Port forwarding can be used to permit other users to reach devices on an internal network through the Internet. The firewall in the router determines if the traffic should be forwarded to an internal device based on the port number. Port numbers are associated with specific services, such as FTP, HTTP, HTTPS, and POP3.

6. What is an inherent security vulnerability of SSID broadcasting?

  • It broadcasts the identity of the network.
  • It allows unauthenticated access to the wireless network.
  • It allows any host to join the wireless network.
  • It sends traffic unencrypted between the wireless access point and the client.

Explanation: By default, wireless routers and access points broadcast SSIDs in plain text to all computers within the wireless range.This represents a security risk because an attacker can easily intercept the wireless signals and read plain text messages.

7. Refer to the exhibit. A newly purchased client laptop has just connected to the local area network. The local area network is using a wireless router that is providing dynamic addressing as shown. Which IP address does the laptop use as a destination address when requesting a dynamically assigned address?

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q7

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q7

  • 255.255.255.0
  • 192.168.0.1
  • 192.168.0.100
  • 255.255.255.255
  • 192.168.0.255

Explanation: When a new client device is installed on a network that uses dynamic IP addressing, the client will send out a DHCP request message with the destination IPv4 address of 255.255.255.255.

8. A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts?

  • 252
  • 254
  • 253
  • 251

Explanation: If the block of addresses allocated to the pool is 192.168.10.0/24, there are 254 IP addresses to be assigned to hosts on the network. As there are 3 printers which need to have their addresses assigned statically, then there are 251 IP addresses left for assignment.

9. Match each DHCP message type with its description. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q9

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q9

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

  • a client initiating a message to find a DHCP server – DHCPDISCOVER
  • a DHCP server responding to the initial request by a client – DHCPOFFER
  • the client accepting the IP address provided by the DHCP server – DHCPREQUEST
  • the DHCP server confirming that the lease has been accepted – DHCPACK

10. A client device on an Ethernet segment needs an IP address in order to communicate on the network. A DHCP server with IP address 192.168.1.1 has been configured and enabled on the network. How will a client device obtain a usable IP address for this network?

  • Use a statically configured IP address from the pool of IP addresses that is offered by the DHCP server.
  • Send a DHCPREQUEST packet to IP address 255.255.255.255.
  • Send a DHCPDISCOVER message to physical address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.
  • Send a DHCPACK packet to the default gateway address.

Explanation: Like IP addressing, there is also a special MAC address for broadcast purposes: FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF. When a DHCP client needs to send a DHCP Discover message in order to seek DHCP servers, the client will use this MAC address as the destination MAC address in the Ethernet frame. It does this because it has no knowledge of the IP and MAC addresses of DHCP servers.

11. Which two criteria are used to help select a network medium for a network? (Choose two.)

  • the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal
  • the environment where the selected medium is to be installed
  • the number of intermediate devices that are installed in the network
  • the types of data that need to be prioritized
  • the cost of the end devices that are used in the network

Explanation: Criteria for choosing a network medium include the following:
The distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal in the environment in which the selected medium is to be installed
The amount of data and the speed at which the data must be transmitted
The cost of the medium and its installation

12. What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

  • Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol.
  • Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique requirements.
  • Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully.
  • A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer.

Explanation: Standards-based protocols enable products from different manufacturers to interoperate successfully. Standards-based protocols enable many manufacturers to implement that protocol. If different manufacturers implement different requirements within the same protocol, then their products will not be interoperable.

13. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during encapsulation?

  • physical layer
  • network layer
  • data link layer
  • transport layer

Explanation: Logical addresses, also known as IP addresses, are added at the network layer. Physical addresses are edded at the data link layer. Port addresses are added at the transport layer. No addresses are added at the physical layer.

14. Which wireless RF band do IEEE 802.11b/g devices use?

  • 2.4 GHz
  • 900 MHz
  • 60 GHz
  • 5 GHz

Explanation: 900 MHz is an FCC wireless technology that was used before development of the 802.11 standards. 900 MHz devices have a larger coverage range than the higher frequencies have and do not require line of sight between devices. 802.11b/g/n/ad devices all operate at 2.4 GHz. 802.11a/n/ac/ad devices operate at 5 GHz, and 802.11ad devices operate at 60 GHz.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which router port connects to the modem provided by the service provider?

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q15

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q15

  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D

Explanation: The ports shown in the diagram are used as follows: The LAN ports, A and B, are used to connect wired devices on the home network. The Internet port, C, is connected to the modem. The port, labeled D, is the 5V DC power port that supplies power to the router.

16. Which type of device filtering can be enabled on some wireless access points or wireless routers?

  • authentication
  • user ID
  • MAC address
  • IP address

Explanation: On wireless access points, MAC addresses can be manually entered to filter which devices are allowed on the wireless network.

17. Using a systematic troubleshooting approach, a help desk technician suspects a problem at Layer 3 of the OSI model. In gathering information, which two questions are associated with Layer 3? (Choose two.)

  • From the PC, is the default gateway reachable using the ping command?
  • Is there a link light on the network card?
  • Is the PC configured for DHCP?
  • Is the network cable plugged in?
  • Does a browser connection to www.cisco.com work?

Explanation: IP address configuration and the ping command are associated with Layer 3 protocols. Visiting a web server is associated with the application layer. An Ethernet cable connection and NIC are associated with Layer 1 functions.

18. A customer calls the help line to report a computer problem. The help line technician responds and works with the customer for some time. However, the technician cannot identify the root cause of the problem. What should the technician do to help the customer?

  • Tell the customer that a ticket is created and another technician will contact the user soon.
  • Tell the customer that a replacement computer will be shipped immediately.
  • Suggest that the customer visit the support website for more detailed information.
  • Ask for the email address of the customer in order to send all the support documents for the computer.

Explanation: When the first line technician cannot identify the cause of the problem, the technician should create a ticket and initiate the escalation process. Because the cause of the problem is not identified, the technician should not authorize the replacement process. The customer should not be sent to explore further troubleshooting.

19. During a move, employee workstations were disconnected from the network and reconnected in new offices. However, after the move a few workstations cannot get a valid IP address. What should be checked first to identify the root cause of the problem?

  • Test if these workstations can ping the default gateway.
  • Install all software updates.
  • Check the operation status of the DHCP server.
  • Make sure the cables are functional and properly plugged.

Explanation: Because the workstations have just been moved from one location to another, the internal OS and applications have not changed. The first thing to check should be the Ethernet cable, including the type of cable used and whether the cables are properly plugged into both the workstation and the jack on the wall.

20. A user is setting up a home wireless network. Which type of device must the user have in order to establish the wireless network and provide access to the internet for multiple home devices?

  • switch
  • hub
  • wireless router
  • patch panel

Explanation: A wireless router connects multiple wireless devices to the network. It will then aggregate the internet access requests from home devices to the internet.

21. A consumer places a smartphone close to a pay terminal at a store and the shopping charge is successfully paid. Which type of wireless technology was used?

  • NFC
  • Wi-Fi
  • 3G
  • Bluetooth

Explanation: NFC is a wireless technology that allows data to be exchanged between devices that are in very close proximity to each other.

22. When troubleshooting network problems, where would a network administrator find the configuration information, such as the computer names and the IP addresses that are used?

  • DNS server
  • logical topology diagram
  • physical topology diagram
  • DHCP server

Explanation: A logical topology usually contains relevant network configuration information, such as the following:
Device names
Device IP addressing
Network designations
Configuration information

23. Which network migration technique encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets to carry them over IPv4 network infrastructures?

  • tunneling
  • encapsulation
  • dual-stack
  • translation

Explanation: The tunneling migration technique encapsulates an IPv6 packet inside an IPv4 packet. Encapsulation assembles a message and adds information to each layer in order to transmit the data over the network. Translation is a migration technique that allows IPv6-enabled devices to communicate with IPv4-enabled devices using a translation technique similar to NAT for IPv4. The dual-stack migration technique allows IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks to coexist on the same network simultaneously.

24. A small accounting office is setting up a wireless network to connect end devices and to provide internet access. In which two scenarios does a wireless router perform Network Address Translation (NAT)? (Choose two.)

  • when a host is sending packets to a remote site owned by the manufacturer of the wireless router in order to request a digital copy of the device manual
  • when a host is sending HTTP packets to the wireless router in order to update the network addressing of the LAN
  • when a host is sending packets to the ISP in order to request a speed increase for Internet services
  • when a host is sending a print job to a network printer on the LAN
  • when a host is sending packets to a local server in order to update the network media settings and music playlists

Explanation: A wireless router will perform Network Address Translation (NAT) whenever a private (local) source IPv4 address is translated to a public (global) address.

25. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on a host, what is the impact on communications?

  • The host is unable to communicate with hosts on both the local and remote networks.
  • The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
  • The host is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
  • The host cannot get an IP address from the DHCP server.

Explanation: In data communication, the default gateway device is involved only when a host needs to communicate with other hosts on another network. The default gateway address identifies a network device that a host device uses to communicate with devices on other networks. The default gateway device is not used when a host communicates with other hosts on the same network.

26. What are two common media used in networks? (Choose two.)

  • wood
  • fiber
  • water
  • copper
  • nylon

Explanation: Common media used in networks include copper, glass or plastic optical fiber, and wireless.

27. Which two types of interference may affect the data throughput on UTP cables? (Choose two.)

  • temperature
  • crosstalk
  • noise
  • EMI
  • moisture

Explanation: Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cabling is sensitive to the interference introduced by electromagnetic interference (EMI) and crosstalk.

28. What are two wiring schemes defined by the TIA/EIA organization for Ethernet installation in homes and businesses? (Choose two.)

  • T568B
  • T568A
  • STP
  • UTP
  • RJ-45

Explanation: The TIA/EIA organization defines the wiring schemes T568A and T568B for typical Ethernet installations. Each wiring scheme defines a specific order of wire connections on the end of the cable.

29. A host needs to reach another host on a remote network, but the ARP cache has no mapping entries. To what destination address will the host send an ARP request?

  • the unicast MAC address of the remote host
  • the unicast IP address of the remote host
  • the broadcast MAC address
  • the subnet broadcast IP address

Explanation: ARP requests are sent when a host does not have an IP to MAC mapping for a destination in the ARP cache. ARP requests are sent to the Ethernet broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. In this example because the address of the remote host is unknown, an ARP request is sent to the Ethernet broadcast to resolve the MAC address of the default gateway that is used to reach the remote host.

30. Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?

  • source MAC address
  • destination MAC address
  • destination IP address
  • source IP address

Explanation: When a switch receives a frame with a source MAC address that is not in the MAC address table, the switch will add that MAC address to the table and map that address to a specific port. Switches do not use IP addressing in the MAC address table.

31. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

  • It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.
  • It assists in protocol design.
  • It prevents designers from creating their own model.
  • It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.
  • It speeds up packet delivery.

Explanation: Some vendors have developed their own reference models and protocols. Today, if a device is to communicate on the Internet, the device must use the TCP/IP model. The benefits of using a layered model are as follows:assists in protocol design
fosters competition between vendors
prevents a technology that functions at one layer from affecting any other layer
provides a common language for describing network functionality
helps in visualizing the interaction between each layer and protocols between each layer

32. Which two devices are considered end devices? (Choose two.)

  • router
  • laptop
  • hub
  • switch
  • printer

Explanation: A device that forms the interface between users and the underlying communication network is known as an end device. End devices are either the source or destination of a message.

33. Which factor does not influence throughput?

  • the operating system that is used by end devices
  • the amount of data that is being sent and received on the connection
  • the latency that is created by the number of network devices encountered between source and destination
  • the type of data that is being transmitted

Explanation: Throughput is the amount of data that has successfully moved from one place to another in a given time period. Several factors could influence throughput, including the amount and type of data being transmitted and latency.

34. What is a characteristic of a peer-to-peer application?

  • The resources required for the application are centralized.
  • Each device can act both as a client and a server, but not simultaneously.
  • Each device using the application provides a user interface and runs a background service.
  • Both devices initiate a three-way handshake to determine who is initiating the communication.

Explanation: Peer-to-peer networks exist directly between client devices, with no centralized resources or authentication. Hybrid peer-to-peer systems also exist that decentralize resource sharing but can use centralized indexes to point to the resource locations.

35. Using default settings, what is the next step in the switch boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?

  • Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
  • Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
  • Load the running-config file from RAM.
  • Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
  • Perform the POST routine.

36. Which two files, if found, are copied into RAM as a router with the default configuration register setting boots up? (Choose two.)

  • running configuration
  • startup configuration
  • POST diagnostics
  • IOS image file

Explanation: The two primary files needed for bootup are the IOS image file and startup configuration, which are copied into RAM to maximize performance. If a router configuration register is set to 0x2102, the router will attempt to load the IOS image from flash memory and the startup configuration file from NVRAM.

37. What are two features of protocols used within the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

  • The Internet Layer IP protocol has built in mechanisms for ensuring the reliable transmission and receipt of data.
  • TCP mechanisms retransmit data when an acknowledgment is not received from the destination system within a set period of time.
  • The same Transport Layer source port is used for all of the tabs opened at the same time within a web browser.
  • TCP and UDP destination port numbers are dynamically generated by the sending device in order to track the responses to requests.
  • UDP is used when an application must be delivered as quickly as possible and some loss of data can be tolerated.

Explanation: Application programmers make decisions about which protocols to use to transport the data to and from their applications based on whether the application can tolerate any lost data. Live streaming and voice transmissions can use UDP because if a few data packets are lost, the quality of the video and audio is not seriously impacted. TCP is used when all data must be complete and accurate.

38. A student is uploading files from a phone to a server on another network. Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for providing an addressing scheme to transmit the data between the devices?

  • transport
  • application
  • network access
  • internet

Explanation: The internet layer provides addresses for the purpose of connecting end devices on different networks.

39. Which statement correctly describes data transmission at the transport layer?

  • A single datagram can include both a TCP and a UDP header.
  • Both UDP and TCP use port numbers.
  • Segmentation is provided by sequence numbers when UDP is used.
  • Segmentation is provided by the window size field when the TCP protocol is used.
  • Retransmission of lost packets is provided by both TCP and UDP.

Explanation: Segmentation is handled at Layer 4 by TCP sequence numbers. UDP does not have sequence numbers in the header, but instead, lets the application handle reordering if it is necessary. Only TCP provides reliable deliver and retransmits data. Each segment has either a TCP header or a UDP header; it cannot contain both.

40. What type of technology converts analog voice signals into digital data?

  • SNMP
  • POP3
  • VoIP
  • SMTP

Explanation: Voice over IP (VoIP) is a technology that is used with making telephone calls across a network or internet and it converts analog voice signals into digital data.

41. Match the protocol with the function. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q41

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q41

42. While a network security product is being deployed, a customizable list of allowable protocols is shown. Which three protocols should be allowed to provide for the use of email on a network? (Choose three.)

  • SMTP
  • IMAP4
  • Telnet
  • DNS
  • POP3
  • HTTP
  • TFTP

Explanation: The email protocols used on a network are SMTP, POP3, and IMAP4. SMTP is used to send messages to a local email server, whereas POP and IMAP are used to receive email.

43. In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller?

  • application policies
  • control plane
  • security
  • data plane

Explanation: In network virtualization, the control plane function of each network device is removed and is performed by a centralized controller. The controller then can communicate control plane functions to each of the network devices. This allows the network devices to focus all resources on forwarding plane functions.

44. A user is configuring a wireless access point and wants to prevent any neighbors from discovering the network. What action does the user need to take?

  • Enable WPA encryption.
  • Configure a DNS server.
  • Configure DMZ settings.
  • Disable SSID broadcast.

Explanation: Disabling SSID broadcast prevents the access point from announcing the name of the network. Enabling WPA encryption, configuring DMZ settings, and configuring a DNS server will accomplish different tasks, but the name of the network will still be announced.

45. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation?

  • maintaining communication integrity
  • online collaboration
  • virtualization
  • BYOD

Explanation: Virtualization technology can run several different operating systems in parallel on a single CPU.

46. A network administrator installs a network device that focuses on interconnecting independent local networks. At which layer of devices does this technology reside?

  • access
  • internet
  • core
  • distribution

Explanation: The distribution layer connects local networks and controls the traffic flowing between them. Networking devices that make up the distribution layer are designed to interconnect networks, not individual hosts.

47. A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?

  • The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host.
  • The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.
  • The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it will be sent directly to the destination host.
  • The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.

Explanation: If the destination host is in the same LAN as the source host, there is no need for a default gateway. A default gateway is needed if a packet needs to be sent outside the LAN.

48. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

  • There is no impact on communications.
  • The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
  • The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
  • The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.

Explanation: A default gateway is only required to communicate with devices on another network. The absence of a default gateway does not affect connectivity between devices on the same local network.

49. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console interface? (Choose three.)

  • interface fastethernet 0/0
  • line console 0
  • line vty 0 4
  • password cisco
  • login
  • enable secret cisco

Explanation: The three commands needed to password protect the console port are as follows:
line console 0
password cisco
login
The interface fastethernet 0/0 command is commonly used to access the configuration mode used to apply specific parameters such as the IP address to the Fa0/0 port. The line vty 0 4 command is used to access the configuration mode for Telnet. The 0 and 4 parameters specify ports 0 through 4, or a maximum of five simultaneous Telnet connections. The enable secret command is used to apply a password used on the router to access the privileged mode.

50. A network administrator establishes a connection to a switch via SSH. What characteristic uniquely describes the SSH connection?

  • direct access to the switch through the use of a terminal emulation program
  • remote access to the switch through the use of a telephone dialup connection
  • on-site access to a switch through the use of a directly connected PC and a console cable
  • remote access to a switch where data is encrypted during the session
  • out-of-band access to a switch through the use of a virtual terminal with password authentication

Explanation: SSH provides a secure remote login through a virtual interface. SSH provides a stronger password authentication than Telnet. SSH also encrypts the data during the session.

51. Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

  • privileged EXEC
  • console line
  • AUX port
  • virtual terminal

Explanation: The enable secret command secures access to the privileged EXEC mode of a Cisco router or switch.

52. When configuring SSH on a router to implement secure network management, a network engineer has issued the login local and transport input ssh line vty commands. What three additional configuration actions have to be performed to complete the SSH configuration? (Choose three.)

  • Configure role-based CLI access.
  • Create a valid local username and password database.
  • Set the user privilege levels.
  • Configure the correct IP domain name.
  • Generate the asymmetric RSA keys.
  • Manually enable SSH after the RSA keys are generated.

Explanation: SSH is automatically enabled after the RSA keys are generated. Setting user privilege levels and configuring role-based CLI access are good security practices but are not a requirement of implementing SSH.

53. Match the commands to the correct actions. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q53

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q53

54. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

  • to uniquely identify a host on a network
  • to determine the subnet to which the host belongs
  • to mask the IP address to outsiders
  • to identify whether the address is public or private

Explanation: With the IPv4 address, a subnet mask is also necessary. A subnet mask is a special type of IPv4 address that coupled with the IP address determines the subnet of which the device is a member.

55. Which two statements describe characteristics of network addresses? (Choose two.)

  • A valid public IPv4 or IPv6 address is needed in order for devices to communicate over the internet.
  • DHCP is used to dynamically assign both MAC and IP addresses to devices connected to the network.
  • A statically assigned IP address will be valid on any network to which the device connects.
  • The MAC address of a device will change when that device moves from one Ethernet network to another.
  • A MAC address is also referred to as a physical address because it is permanently embedded on the NIC.

Explanation: Knowing how network addressing works can speed configuration and troubleshooting tasks. MAC addresses are assigned by the NIC manufacturer and remain the same as long as the NIC is not replaced. MAC addresses are used to communicate between devices connected to the same local Ethernet network. Valid IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are necessary for communications to be routed over the internet. All IP addresses are valid only on a network that has the same network prefix bits and the same subnet mask.

56. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

  • Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
  • The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
  • The range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local network.
  • A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.
  • Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.
  • Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

Explanation: Broadcast messages consist of single packets that are sent to all hosts on a network segment. These types of messages are used to request IPv4 addresses, and map upper layer addresses to lower layer addresses. A multicast transmission is a single packet sent to a group of hosts and is used by routing protocols, such as OSPF and RIPv2, to exchange routes. The address range 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved for link-local addresses to reach multicast groups on a local network.

57. Match the router prompt to the configuration task.

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q57

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q57

58. A network administrator issues the Switch(config)# Interface FastEthernet 0/1 command on a Cisco switch. Which term is used to describe the “0/1” part in the command?

  • argument
  • keyword
  • hot key
  • command

Explanation: In this command structure, the Interface part is the command, the FastEthernet part is a keyword, and the 0/1 part is an argument.

59. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q59

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Q59

  • Passwords have been configured on the switch.
  • One device is attached to a physical interface.
  • The switch can be remotely managed.
  • Two physical interfaces have been configured.
  • The default SVI has been configured.
  • Two devices are attached to the switch.

Explanation: Vlan1 is the default SVI. Because an SVI has been configured, the switch can be configured and managed remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is showing up and up, so a device is connected.

60. Which command can an administrator execute to determine what interface a router will use to reach remote networks?

  • show ip route
  • show arp
  • show protocols
  • show interfaces

Explanation: The show ip route command is used to display the IP routing table of the router. The IP routing table will show a list of known local and remote networks and the interfaces that the router will use to reach those networks.

Old version (2022)

1. What is the difference between the terms bandwidth and throughput?

  • Bandwidth measures data transfer of web applications and throughput measures data transfer of video applications.
  • Bandwidth is measured with Mb/s and throughput is measured in Kbps.
  • Bandwidth is the capacity of data transfer in a network and throughput is the actual data transfer rate.
  • Bandwidth represents the data transfer rate in a local network and throughput represents the data transfer rate over the Internet.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q2

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q2

  • B, E, G, H
  • E, F, H, I, J
  • D, E, F, H, I, J
  • A, C, D
  • C, D, G, H, I, J

3. Which scenario describes a peer-to-peer network?

  • A user visits a webpage on the company web site.
  • Users print documents from a network printer that has a built-in NIC.
  • Users access shared files from a file server.
  • A user has shared a printer attached to the workstation.

Explanation: In a peer-to-peer network there is no centralized or dedicated server. A user computer can be a client to request service from another user computer and a server to share a network resource (such as a printer) to other users.

4. When a computer assembles a frame to be sent over the network, what is the maximum size of an Ethernet frame?

  • 64 bytes
  • 1518 bytes
  • 128 bytes
  • 1024 bytes

Explanation: Ethernet standards define a frame size with a minimum of 64 bytes and a maximum of 1518 bytes including fields of destination MAC address, source MAC, Length/Type, data payload, and FCS

5. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q5

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q5

  • The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
  • The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
  • The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
  • The switch will discard the frame.
  • The switch will forward the frame to all ports.

Explanation: The MAC address of PC3 is not present in the MAC table of the switch. Because the switch does not know where to send the frame that is addressed to PC3, it will forward the frame to all the switch ports, except for port 4, which is the incoming port.

6. What is the function of ARP?

  • resolves domain names to IP addresses
  • sends error and operational information messages to hosts
  • provides automatic IP address assignments to hosts
  • maps IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

Explanation: ARP, or Address Resolution Protocol, is used by hosts to resolve a destination MAC address from a given destination IP address.

7. Users are complaining that they are unable to browse certain websites on the Internet. An administrator can successfully ping a web server via its IP address, but cannot browse to the domain name of the website. Which troubleshooting tool would be most useful in determining where the problem is?

  • nslookup
  • netstat
  • ipconfig
  • tracert

Explanation: The nslookup command can be used to look up information about a particular DNS name in the DNS server. The information includes the IP address of the DNS server being used as well as the IP address associated with the specified DNS name. This command can help verify the DNS that is used and if the domain name to IP address resolution works.

8. Match the command to the function.

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q8

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q8

9. A medium-sized company uses APs, WLCs, and laptops for employee workstations. An employee reports the inability to connect to the Internet. A technician verifies that other workstations can successfully connect to the Internet. What are two possible reasons for the problem? (Choose two.)

  • The AP does not have power.
  • The wireless client is not configured for DHCP.
  • A bad cable exists between the client and the WLC.
  • A default gateway is improperly configured on the AP.
  • The workstation is out of range.

Explanation: When troubleshooting a single wireless client, take into consideration all the things a client needs to join and use the network including the following:
– The client must be within RF range of an AP and requests to authenticate.
– The client authenticates.
– The client requests and receives an IP address.

10. Match the type of attack with the description. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q10

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q10

11. Which three attacks exploit vulnerabilities in software? (Choose three.)

  • phishing
  • Trojan horses
  • worms
  • viruses
  • vishing
  • pretexting

12. A file is downloaded from the Internet. After the user opens the downloaded file, the hard drive crashes and all information on the computer is lost. What type of attack occurred?

  • worm
  • denial of service
  • Trojan horse
  • virus

Explanation: Viruses are malicious programs that are spread by modifying other programs and files and can cause hard drives to crash and files to be lost.

13. What are two ways to protect a computer from malware? (Choose two.)

  • Keep software up to date.
  • Use antivirus software.
  • Empty the browser cache.
  • Defragment the hard disk.
  • Delete unused software.

Explanation: At a minimum, a computer should use antivirus software and have all software up to date to defend against malware.

14. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is restarted?

  • ROM
  • NVRAM
  • flash
  • RAM

Explanation: RAM is volatile memory and will lose all contents if the router or switch is restarted or shutdown.

15. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?

  • ROM
  • RAM
  • NVRAM
  • flash

Explanation: The startup configuration file of a Cisco router or switch is stored in NVRAM, which is nonvolatile memory.

16. Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address that is contained in the frame?

  • switch
  • hub
  • router
  • repeater

Explanation: Switches are the central connection point for a LAN and they maintain a MAC address table. The MAC address table has a port number associated with a MAC address for each particular device. The switch inspects a frame to look at the destination MAC address. The switch then looks in its MAC address table and if that MAC address is found, the switch forwards the data to the port that is associated with that particular MAC address.

17. A user is looking for a wireless headphone for listening to songs stored on a smartphone. What wireless technology would the headphone use?

  • infrared
  • Wi-Fi
  • Bluetooth
  • 3G/4G

Explanation: Bluetooth is a wireless technology for data exchange over a short distance. It is suitable for connecting devices with simple tasks, such as headsets, keyboards, mice, and printers. Wi-Fi is suitable for variety of applications with high speed wireless connectivity required or preferred. Infrared requires a direct line of sight between the transmitter and the receiver. 3G/4G are cellular network technologies to manage voice calls and data transmission between clients and service providers.

18. Which three features represent benefits of virtualization? (Choose three.)

  • less device monitoring
  • improved disaster recovery
  • less employee technical training
  • less equipment
  • less power consumption
  • fewer security requirements

Explanation: Virtualization is the ability to run many instances of an OS simultaneously on the same hardware platform. This reduces the amount of equipment that is required, thus resulting in less power consumption and improved disaster recovery

19. A company has a few employees that are designers. The designers do not have the CAD application loaded on their local computer. Instead, the designers use a CAD application hosted by the application developer. Which type of virtualization is the company using?

  • DaaS
  • PaaS
  • SaaS
  • IaaS

Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing type that provides access to one or more applications through a server. This server is not owned or managed by the company using the application.

20. What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?

  • to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device
  • to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using
  • to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup
  • to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS

Explanation: The startup configuration file is stored in NVRAM and contains the commands needed to initially configure a router. It also creates the running configuration file that is stored in in RAM.

21. Which two steps are required before SSH can be enabled on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

  • Give the router a host name and domain name.
  • Create a banner that will be displayed to users when they connect.
  • Set up an authentication server to handle incoming connection requests.
  • Enable SSH on the physical interfaces where the incoming connection requests will be received.
  • Generate a set of secret keys to be used for encryption and decryption.

Explanation: There are four steps to configure SSH on a Cisco router. First, set the host name and domain name. Second, generate a set of RSA keys to be used for encrypting and decrypting the traffic. Third, create the user IDs and passwords of the users who will be connecting. Lastly, enable SSH on the vty lines on the router. SSH does not need to be set up on any physical interfaces, nor does an external authentication server need to be used. While it is a good idea to configure a banner to display legal information for connecting users, it is not required to enable SSH.​

22. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

  • The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.
  • The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
  • The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
  • The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.

Explanation: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network.In a switch this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway <ip address>.

23. Match the client operation to the network service.

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q23

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q23

24. What action does a DNS server take if it does not have an entry for a requested URL?

  • The server assigns a temporary IP address to the name and sends this IP address to the client.
  • The server returns a “page not found” response to the client.
  • The server checks with another DNS server to see if it has an entry.
  • The server drops the request.

Explanation: When a client types a URL to visit a web server, the browser sends a request to the DNS server with the IP address configured on the computer. When the DNS server receives the request, it checks its table to determine the IP address associated with that web server. If the local DNS server does not have an entry for the requested name, it queries another upstream DNS server. When the DNS server learns the IP address, that information is sent back to the client.​

25. A network security administrator is writing documentation on the firewall requirements for allowing Telnet access to the remote server. Which two pieces of information should be included? (Choose two.)

  • port 23
  • UDP
  • port 22
  • TCP
  • port 20

26. A new employee is attempting to configure a cell phone to connect to the email server of the company. What is the source port number when sending an email from a mobile device?

  • The source port number is 143.
  • The source port number is dynamically generated.
  • The source port number is 25.
  • The source port number is 110.

27. Which function does NAT perform in a wireless router?

  • NAT takes an internal source IP address and translates it to a global IP address.
  • NAT takes a destination IP address and translates it to a global IP address.
  • NAT takes a local IP address and translates it to an internal source IP address.
  • NAT takes a source IP address and translates it to a default gateway address.

28. What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?

  • link-local
  • unique local
  • global unicast
  • loopback

Explanation: When IPv6 is enabled on any interface, that interface will automatically generate an IPv6 link-local address.

29. A user is setting up a home wireless network. A global address is to be used in NAT translations for traffic flowing through the wireless router. How is this global address assigned?

  • The default gateway IP address of the LAN device is used as the global address for NAT translations through the wireless router.
  • The network administrator will choose an available IP address from the LAN and configure the global addressing of the wireless router.
  • The wireless router will act as a DHCP client in order to receive global addressing from the ISP.
  • The host devices will select an unused IP address on the LAN for performing NAT through the wireless router.

Explanation: The public (global) address used in NAT is commonly the public IP address that resides on the external facing interface of the wireless router.This IP address is commonly provided via DHCP from the ISP.

30. A network administrator investigates a user problem. The user can reach hosts on the same network, but is unable to communicate to remote networks.The network administrator tries to ping the gateway address configured on the host device and is unsuccessful. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

  • TCP/IP is not installed on the host device.
  • The IP address of the user is incorrectly configured.
  • The default gateway address is incorrect.
  • The address of the remote device is incorrect.

Explanation: The default gateway address is used to forward packets to remote networks. The IP address of the host must be correct because the user can reach other hosts on the same network. The TCP/IP protocol stack is correct because of verified communication to hosts on the same network. The end device could be incorrectly configured, but the most likely cause of the issue is a wrong address for the default gateway.

31. Which switch command would a network administrator use to determine if there are encapsulation or media errors on an interface?

  • show arp
  • show ip interface
  • show line
  • show interfaces

Explanation: The show interfaces command is useful to detect media errors, to see if packets are being sent and received, and to determine if any runts, giants, CRCs, interface resets, or other errors have occurred. The show ip interface command is useful in seeing whether the interface is “up and up”. The output of the show line command displays parameters for active lines that are in use such as the vty line used for Telnet. The show arp command shows the contents of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table.

32. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q32

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q32

The shortcuts with their functions are as follows:
– Tab – Completes the remainder of a partially typed command or keyword
– Space bar – displays the next screen
– ? – provides context-sensitive help
– Up Arrow – Allows user to scroll backward through former commands
– Ctrl-C – cancels any command currently being entered and returns directly to privileged EXEC mode
– Ctrl-Shift-6 – Allows the user to interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute

33. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q33

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q33

34. What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q34

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q34

  • The SSID is broadcast.
  • MAC address filtering is enabled.
  • WEP encryption is enabled.
  • The wireless channel is automatically selected.
  • A well-known administrator password is set.

Explanation: Default settings on wireless routers often include broadcasting the SSID and using a well-known administrative password. Both of these pose a security risk to wireless networks. WEP encryption and MAC address filtering are not set by default. The automatic selection of the wireless channel poses no security risks.

35. Which security function is provided by a firewall?

  • allows or blocks trafic by performing packet filtering and stateful inspection
  • passively monitors network traffic and logs intrusion attacks for security analysis
  • passively monitors network traffic and automatically blocks intrusion attacks
  • aggregates and correlates threat events, contextual information, and network device performance data

Explanation: A firewall monitors incoming and outgoing network traffic and allows or blocks traffic based on filtering and stateful inspection of packets.

36. Which wireless security technology is difficult to crack and provides encryption of network traffic?

  • WPA2
  • MAC address filtering
  • WEP
  • EAP

37. When a wireless router is being configured for the first time, what type of wired connection is used?

  • modem cable
  • console cable
  • telephone cable
  • Ethernet patch cable

Explanation: A straight-through Ethernet cable, or patch cable, is commonly used to connect to a wireless router for initial configuration.

38. Which type of network is covered by the IEEE 802.11 standards?

  • Internet
  • Wi-Fi
  • Ethernet
  • WAN

39. Which advanced wireless security measure allows a network administrator to keep sensitive data secure as it travels over the air in a wireless network?

  • authentication
  • encryption
  • MAC address filtering
  • traffic filtering

Explanation: Encryption is used to secure plaintext data that would be viewable traveling over a wireless network.

40. Match the TCP/IP model layer to the function.

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q40

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q40

41. Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)

  • TCP/IP
  • MAC
  • OSI
  • IETF
  • IEEE
  • IANA

Explanation: TCP/IP is a protocol stack that contains a lot of other protocols such as HTTP, FTP, and DNS. The TCP/IP protocol stack is required to be used when communicating on the Internet. A MAC address is an address that is burned into an Ethernet network card. OSI is the 7 layer model that is used to explain how networking works.

42. Which statement is correct about network protocols?

  • They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.
  • They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
  • Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.
  • They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.

Explanation: Network protocols are implemented in hardware, or software, or both. They interact with each other within different layers of a protocol stack. Protocols have nothing to do with the installation of the network equipment. Network protocols are required to exchange information between source and destination devices in both local and remote networks.

43. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?

  • MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255
  • both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server
  • FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server
  • FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255

Explanation: When the lease of a dynamically assigned IPv4 address has expired, a workstation will send a DHCPDISCOVER message to start the process of obtaining a valid IP address. Because the workstation does not know the addresses of DHCP servers, it sends the message via broadcast, with destination addresses of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255.

44. When designing an IP address scheme, what is a benefit of using DHCP to assign host addresses?

  • Devices on the Internet can easily locate the hosts and send data to them.
  • Hosts are permanently assigned an address by the DHCP server so that they are easier to manage
  • A gateway address is not required for hosts on one subnet to communicate with hosts on another subnet.
  • Changing the subnetting scheme does not require manually reassigning individual host addresses.

45. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

  • dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses
  • predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
  • addresses from different subnets for redundancy
  • random static addresses to improve security

Explanation: When monitoring servers, a network administrator needs to be able to quickly identify them. Using a predictable static addressing scheme for these devices makes them easier to identify. Server security, redundancy, and duplication of addresses are not features of an IP addressing scheme.

46. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

  • multicast address
  • host address
  • broadcast address
  • network address

Explanation: The /24 shows that the network address is 172.17.4.0. The broadcast address for this network would be 172.17.4.255. Useable host addresses for this network are 172.17.4.1 through 172.17.4.254.

47. What is the decimal equivalent to binary 11110000?

  • 192
  • 248
  • 224
  • 240

48. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?

  • unicast
  • limited broadcast
  • directed broadcast
  • multicast

Explanation: A directed broadcast is a message sent to all hosts on a specific network. It is useful for sending a broadcast to all hosts on a nonlocal network. A multicast message is a message sent to a selected group of hosts that are part of a subscribing multicast group. A limited broadcast is used for a communication that is limited to the hosts on the local network. A unicast message is a message sent from one host to another.

49. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

  • source MAC address
  • DNS server
  • default gateway
  • source port number
  • HTTP server

50. Which three configuration components are required to allow a host to communicate with other hosts on remote networks? (Choose three.)

  • IP address
  • domain name
  • default gateway
  • DNS server
  • subnet mask
  • DHCP server address

Explanation: An IP address, a subnet mask, and a default gateway are required on a host that must communicate with another host in a remote network. DNS server information is needed if mapping a domain name to an associated IP address. DHCP server information is dynamically learned and is not a required configuration for remote network reachability.

51. Which two methods are used to directly connect mobile devices such as tablets and smartphones to a data network? (Choose two.)

  • WiMax
  • Wi-Fi
  • Bluetooth
  • cellular communications
  • wired Ethernet

Explanation: Mobile devices connect wirelessly to data networks using either Wi-Fi or a telecommunication provider cellular network. Bluetooth is used to connect to peripherals or other local devices over very short distances. Ethernet is a wired network access technology and is not used by mobile devices. Mobile devices do not typically implement WiMAX technology.

52. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

  • because HTTP requires reliable delivery
  • to ensure the fastest possible download speed
  • because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
  • because transmission errors can be tolerated easily

Explanation: When a host requests a web page, transmission reliability and completeness must be guaranteed. Therefore, HTTP uses TCP as its transport layer protocol.

53. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 needs to resolve the host name of the web server into an IP address by using DNS. What destination IP address and destination port number will PC1 assign to the DNS query packet?​

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q53

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q53

  • 192.168.20.2 port 80
  • 192.168.10.1 port 53
  • 192.168.20.3 port 53
  • 192.168.20.2 port 53
  • 192.168.20.3 port 80

Explanation: To resolve the host name to an IP address a host can send a query to a DNS server. The transport layer port number for DNS is port 53.

54. When is UDP preferred to TCP?

  • when all the data must be fully received before any part of it is considered useful
  • when segments must arrive in a very specific sequence to be processed successfully
  • when a client sends a segment to a server
  • when an application can tolerate some loss of data during transmission

Explanation: UDP can be used when an application can tolerate some data loss. UDP is the preferred protocol for applications that provide voice or video that cannot tolerate delay.

55. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q55_1

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q55_1

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q55

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q55

Explanation: Packets with a destination of 172.17.6.15 are forwarded through Fa0/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.10.5 are forwarded through Fa1/1. Packets with a destination of 172.17.12.10 are forwarded through Fa1/0. Packets with a destination of 172.17.14.8 are forwarded through Fa0/1. Because network 172.17.8.0 has no entry in the routing table, it will take the gateway of last resort, which means that packets with a destination of 172.17.8.20 are forwarded through Serial0/0/0. Because a gateway of last resort exists, no packets will be dropped.

56. When a router receives a packet, what information must be examined in order for the packet to be forwarded to a remote destination?

  • source IP address
  • destination IP address
  • destination MAC address
  • source MAC address

Explanation: When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and uses the routing table to search for the best path to that network.

57. A user can access a file share resource on a server located in the same office but cannot access the internet. What is the possible cause?

  • The default gateway address is misconfigured on the PC.
  • The switch is malfunctioning.
  • The DHCP server is disconnected.
  • The IPv4 address and subnet mask are misconfigured on the PC.

Explanation: The fact that the user can access a file share resource but not the internet indicates the issue might be caused by default gateway misconfiguration. If no default gateway is configured in the host TCP/IP settings, or if the wrong default gateway is specified, messages addressed to hosts on the internet cannot be delivered.

58. A network technician is extending the network from the main office building over several hundred meters to a new security station. The security station needs a high speed connection to support video surveillance of the main building. What type of cable is best suited to connect the security station to the rest of the main office network?

  • fiber optic
  • unshielded twisted pair
  • shielded twisted pair
  • coax

Explanation: Fiber optic cable can deliver signals over distances of several miles. Because it uses light, fiber is impervious to RFI and EMI and is superior to signals sent over copper or aluminum wiring.

59. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

  • greater bandwidth potential
  • easily terminated
  • lower installation cost
  • durable connections
  • limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
  • greater distances per cable run

Explanation: Optical fiber cable transmits data over longer distances and at higher bandwidths than any other networking media. Unlike copper wires, fiber-optic cable can transmit signals with less attenuation and is completely immune to EMI and RFI.

60. Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?

  • Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
  • Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
  • Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
  • Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.

Explanation: The ping utility tests end-to-end connectivity between the two hosts. However, if the message does not reach the destination, there is no way to determine where the problem is located. On the other hand, the traceroute utility ( tracert in Windows) traces the route a message takes from its source to the destination. Traceroute displays each hop along the way and the time it takes for the message to get to that network and back.

61. Which three protocols operate at the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

  • ARP
  • POP3
  • TCP
  • DHCP
  • FTP
  • UDP

Explanation: FTP, DHCP, and POP3 are application layer protocols. TCP and UDP are transport layer protocols. ARP is a network layer protocol.

62. Which network design solution will best extend access layer connectivity to host devices?

  • implementing EtherChannel
  • implementing redundancy
  • implementing routing protocols
  • implementing wireless connectivity

Explanation: EtherChannel allows more data to be moved at the access layer, but does not provide network expansion. Redundancy is used to provide failover solutions but does not focus on network expansion. Routing protocols are not used to provide network expansion at the access layer. Wireless connectivity provides network access to a large number of users at the access layer.

63. Which network server is malfunctioning if a user can ping the IP address of a web server but cannot ping the web server host name?

  • the DHCP server
  • the DNS server
  • the FTP server
  • the HTTP server

Explanation: If pings are successful to an IP address but not to a host name, then the problem may be that a DNS server cannot be accessed.

64. A PC is not able to connect to a wired network. Pinging the loopback address is successful, but the gateway cannot be reached. On the network switch all the interface lights are on, except for the interface connected to the PC. The LED on the network card is off. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

  • The gateway needs to be fixed.
  • The network cable is faulty.
  • The PC has an incorrect IP address for the DNS server.
  • The network switch is faulty.

Explanation: The network card is working if the loopback address can be pinged. The LED on the network card being off points towards a faulty cable or a bad connection.

65. What are two benefits of wireless networks over wired networks? (Choose two.)

  • increased security
  • anytime, anywhere connectivity
  • immunity to interference
  • speed
  • mobility

66. Which technology is used to uniquely identify a WLAN network?

  • MAC address table
  • SSID
  • WEP
  • WPA

Explanation: When a wireless AP or router is being set up, an SSID is configured to uniquely identify the WLAN that is managed by the device.

67. Match the components in the notation 100Base-T to the specification. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q67

68. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

  • transport
  • physical
  • network
  • data link
  • session

Explanation: The OSI data link and physical layers together are equivalent to the TCP/IP network access layer. The OSI transport layer is functionally equivalent to the TCP/IP transport layer, and the OSI network layer is equivalent to the TCP/IP internet layer. The OSI application, presentation, and session layers are functionally equivalent to the application layer within the TCP/IP model.

69. Which address is a valid IPv6 address that could be assigned to a host?

  • 2001:db8::1111::200/80
  • 2001:db8::1111::200/64​
  • 2001:db8:0:1111::200/44
  • 2001:db8:0:1111::200/120​

70. What does the letter C mean next to an entry in the output of the show ip route command?

  • It identifies a network that is a static route.
  • It identifies a network that is learned through OSPF.
  • It identifies a network that is learned through EIGRP.
  • It identifies a network that is directly connected to the router.

Explanation: In a routing table, the label C identifies a network that is directly connected to an interface on the device. This entry is added to the routing table when an interface is configured with an IP address and activated.

71. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

  • the first Ethernet port interface
  • the switch virtual interface
  • the console port interface
  • the AUX interface

Explanation: In a Layer 2 switch, there is a switch virtual interface (SVI) that provides a means for remotely managing the device.

72. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)

  • ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
  • Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
  • RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
  • ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
  • Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.
  • NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.

Explanation: A router contains four types of memory:
RAM – volatile memory used to store the running IOS, running configuration file, routing table, ARP table, as well as serve as a packet buffer
ROM – nonvolatile memory used to hold a limited version of the IOS, bootup instructions, and basic diagnostic software
NVRAM – nonvolatile memory used to hold the startup configuration file
Flash – nonvolatile memory used to hold the IOS and other system files

73. Which feature is characteristic of MAC filtering in wireless networks?

  • It restricts computer access to a wireless network.
  • It encrypts data that is transmitted on a wireless network.
  • It allows only authorized users to detect the network.
  • It is configured on the computer rather than on the router.

Explanation: MAC address filtering uses the MAC address to identify which devices are allowed to connect to the wireless network.

74. Which two statements about a Service Set Identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)

  • It is responsible for determining the signal strength.
  • It tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs.
  • All wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID.
  • It provides strong wireless security.
  • It is used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network.

75. What are three characteristics of UTP cabling? (Choose three.)

  • susceptible to EMI and RFI
  • commonly used for Internet connectivity by a cable TV provider
  • easiest type of networking cable to install
  • commonly used between buildings
  • uses light to transmit data
  • most commonly used networking cable

76. Which three factors should be considered when choosing the appropriate network media? (Choose three.)

  • the data security and fault tolerance requirement
  • the environment in which the media is installed
  • the amount of data and the data transfer rate desired
  • the operating systems used on network devices in the network
  • the distance between hosts that the media will connect
  • the speed of the CPU and amount of memory in servers

Explanation:
Several criteria should be considered when selecting network media: The cost of the media and installation
The environment in which the media is installed
The amount of data and the data transfer rate desired
The distance between hosts that the media will connect

77. What is an advantage of the peer-to-peer network model?

  • high level of security
  • scalability
  • ease of setup
  • centralized administration

Explanation: The simplest peer-to-peer network consists of two computers that are directly connected to each other through the use of a wired or wireless connection. The advantages of peer-to-peer networking include ease of setup, lower cost, and less complexity.

78. Which three devices are considered intermediate devices in a network? (Choose three.)

  • wireless access point
  • network printer
  • server
  • switch
  • workstation
  • router

Explanation: Intermediate devices in a network provide network connectivity to end devices and transfer user data packets during data communications.

79. Which two devices are shared peripherals? (Choose two.)

  • touch-pad with digital stylus
  • printer
  • scanner
  • tablet
  • laptop

Explanation: A shared peripheral device does not connect directly to a network. This device is attached to a host (such as a PC) and the host connects to the network to share the peripheral device.

80. Which is a characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?​

  • does not require management console software
  • has direct access to server hardware resources
  • best suited for enterprise environments
  • installs directly on hardware

Explanation: Type 2 hypervisors are hosted on an underlaying operating system and are best suited for consumer applications and those experimenting with virtualization. Unlike Type 1 hypervisors, Type 2 hypervisors do not require a management console and do not have direct access to hardware.​

81. A network administrator attempted to access the company website and received a “page not found” error. The next day the administrator checked the web server logs and noticed that during the same hour that the site failed to load, there was an unusually large number of requests for the website home page. All of the requests originated from the same IP address. Given this information, what might the network administrator conclude?

  • The web server was turned off and was not able to service requests.
  • It is normal web surfing activity.
  • It is likely that someone attempted a DoS attack.
  • The link to the website does not have enough capacity and needs to be increased.

82. What technique is used in social engineering attacks?

  • sending junk email
  • man-in-the-middle
  • phishing
  • buffer overflow

Explanation: A threat actor sends fraudulent email which is disguised as being from a legitimate, trusted source to trick the recipient into installing malware on their device, or to share personal or financial information.

83. Which three IP addresses are considered private addresses? (Choose three.)

  • 192.168.5.29
  • 172.17.254.4
  • 128.37.255.6
  • 198.168.6.18
  • 172.68.83.35
  • 10.234.2.1

Explanation:The designated private IP addresses are within the three IP address ranges:

  • 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
  • 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
  • 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255

84. Which two application layer protocols manage the exchange of messages between a client with a web browser and a remote web server? (Choose two.)

  • HTTPS
  • HTML
  • DHCP
  • HTTP
  • DNS

Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and HTTP Secure (HTTPS) are two application layer protocols that manage the content requests from clients and the responses from the web server. HTML (Hypertext Mark-up Language) is the encoding language that describes the content and display features of a web page. DNS is for domain name to IP address resolution. DHCP manages and provides dynamic IP configurations to clients.

85. Match the port number to the email protocol.

86. Which protocol is used by a server that needs to send an email message to another server in order to support successful delivery of the message?

  • SMTP
  • DNS
  • POP3
  • IMAP4

87. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

  • It connects multiple IP networks.
  • It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
  • It determines the best path to send packets.
  • It manages the VLAN database.
  • It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

Explanation: Routers play a critical role in networking by determining the best path for sending packets. They connect multiple IP networks by connecting homes and businesses to the Internet. They are also used to interconnect multiple sites within an enterprise network, providing redundant paths to destinations. Routers can also act as translators between different media types and protocols.

88. Which statement describes a major characteristic of a local area network?

  • A LAN is under one administrative control.
  • A LAN is implemented in a corporation to connect all of its offices.
  • A LAN connects remote users to the main corporate office.
  • A LAN can contain up to 100 hosts.

89. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q89

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q89

  • subnet mask
  • DNS address
  • host IP address
  • default gateway address

90. A law firm uses DHCPv4 to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses for staff workstations. The DHCP policy specifies that the lease period is 7 days. A staff member returns to the office after 2 weeks of vacation. When the employee turns on the workstation, which DHCPv4 message is sent by the workstation to obtain a valid IPv4 address?

  • DHCPACK broadcast message
  • DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
  • DHCPOFFER unicast message
  • DHCPREQUEST unicast message

91. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)

Answer

Explanation: The enable command is entered in R1> mode. The login command is entered in R1(config-line)# mode. The copy running-config startup-config command is entered in R1# mode. The ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0 command is entered in R1(config-if)# mode. The service password-encryption command is entered in global configuration mode.

92. Which three layers of the OSI model make up the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

  • presentation
  • transport
  • application
  • network
  • session
  • data link

Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model.

93. What are two characteristics of 802.11 wireless networks? (Choose two.)

  • Stations can transmit at any time.
  • They use CSMA/CA technology.
  • They are collision-free networks.
  • They use CSMA/CD technology.
  • Collisions can exist in the networks.

94. Which function is supplied by the access layer in a three-layer network design?

  • application of policies
  • backbone connectivity
  • routing
  • network access
  • high-speed connectivity

Explanation: The main purpose of devices in the access layer is to supply network access to end users. Distribution layer devices provide services such as routing and policy functions. The core layer provides high-speed backbone connectivity.

95. When a LAN is connected to the internet using a wireless router, how do devices on the LAN communicate on the internet using NAT?

  • Each LAN must select a single client device from the wireless router settings that can communicate to the internet via NAT.
  • Only a small group of high priority client devices can be chosen by the wireless router to communicate to the internet using NAT.
  • Each device must wait to receive a token from the wireless router in order to communicate to the internet via NAT.
  • All devices must share the single public IPv4 address assigned to the wireless router in order to communicate to the internet via NAT.

Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) is a technology that operates on a wireless router and allows all LAN hosts to share the single internet routable address configured on the external interface of the wireless router. All LAN hosts can communicate at the same time using this single internet assigned IP address.

96. In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

  • when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic
  • when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port
  • when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device
  • when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed

Explanation: Layer 2 switches can be configured with an IP address so that they can be remotely managed by an administrator. Layer 3 switches can use an IP address on routed ports. Layer 2 switches do not need a configured IP address to forward user traffic or act as a default gateway.

97. When would the Cisco IOS image held in ROM be used to boot the router?

  • when the full IOS cannot be found
  • during a normal boot process
  • when the running configuration directs the router to do this
  • during a file transfer operation

98. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot a simple network problem that seems to be caused by software. Which troubleshooting approach should be used?

  • divide and conquer
  • bottom-up
  • top-down
  • substitution

99. A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

  • user EXEC mode
  • privileged EXEC mode
  • setup mode
  • global configuration mode

Explanation: If a Cisco IOS device has a valid IOS and a valid configuration file, it will boot into user EXEC mode. A password will be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.

100. Which three features represent benefits of virtualization? (Choose three.)

  • fewer security requirements
  • less power consumption
  • improved disaster recovery
  • less equipment
  • less device monitoring
  • less employee technical training

Explanation: Virtualization is the ability to run many instances of an OS simultaneously on the same hardware platform. This reduces the amount of equipment that is required, thus resulting in less power consumption and improved disaster recovery

101. What is a difference between the functions of Cloud computing and virtualization?

  • Cloud computing utilizes data center technology whereas virtualization is not used in data centers.
  • Cloud computing provides services on web-based access whereas virtualization provides services on data access through virtualized
  • Internet connections.
  • Cloud computing separates the application from the hardware whereas virtualization separates the OS from the underlying hardware.
  • Cloud computing requires hypervisor technology whereas virtualization is a fault tolerance technology.

Explanation: Cloud computing separates the application from the hardware. Virtualization separates the OS from the underlying hardware. Virtualization is a typical component within cloud computing. Virtualization is also widely used in data centers. Although the implementation of virtualization facilitates an easy server fault tolerance setup, it is not a fault tolerance technology by design. The Internet connection from a data center or service provider needs redundant physical WAN connections to ISPs.​​

102. Which two types of devices provide dynamic IPv4 addressing for internal hosts on a local network? (Choose two.)

  • ISP DHCP server
  • PC-based DHCP client
  • wireless router
  • PC-based DHCP server
  • ISP router

103. A technician uses an application to capture packets on the network. One such capture reveals the password that is used by a person in the classroom to initiate a Telnet session with a school network device. What recommendation could the technician make to the person who is using Telnet?

  • If possible, enable the network device to use SSH instead of Telnet.
  • If possible, configure the business firewall to filter port 23.
  • If possible, encrypt the Telnet password on the classroom computer.
  • If possible, use a VPN tunnel from the classroom computer to the network device.

104. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

  • Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
  • End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.
  • Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
  • Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.

Explanation: Cloud computing extends IT’s capabilities without requiring investment in new infrastructure, training new personnel, or licensing new software. These services are available on-demand and delivered economically to any device anywhere in the world without compromising security or function. BYOD is about end users having the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network. Smart home technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated. Powerline networking is a trend for home networking that uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.

105. A technician is tasked with connecting a printer directly to the network and making it accessible to all staff in the general vicinity. What type of network cable is most likely used to connect the printer?

  • RJ-11
  • fiber-optic
  • coaxial
  • twisted-pair

106. What benefit does DHCP provide to a network?

  • DHCP allows users to refer to locations by a name rather than an IP address.
  • Hosts always have the same IP address and are therefore always reachable.
  • Hosts can connect to the network and get an IP address without manual configuration.
  • Duplicate addresses cannot occur on a network that issues dynamic addresses using DHCP and has static assignments.

Explanation: DHCP provides automatic IP address configuration to hosts on a network. Hosts will be dynamically assigned an address when they connect to the network, although not necessarily the same address each time they connect. If there are static and dynamic addresses used together on the network there could still be the possibility of address conflicts. DNS can be used in conjunction with DHCP to allow users to communicate using names rather than IP addresses.

107. What is the first step that a switch performs during the bootup sequence?

  • Low-level CPU initialization begins.
  • POST is initiated.
  • The default IOS image is loaded.
  • The boot loader is loaded.

108. A network engineer working at a community building that provides free WiFi is holding an IT conference tomorrow evening. A previous conference with over 100 attendees just ended less than 24 hours ago and the network engineer is concerned about the availability of dynamic addressing. How will the network engineer ensure that there are enough IP addresses for the attendees arriving at the IT conference tomorrow?

  • The network engineer will create a new pool of IP addresses and provide a new network subnet and router configuration for the conference.
  • The network engineer will manually release each lease created by the conference attendees yesterday and statically assign the incoming devices at the conference.
  • The network engineer will disconnect all devices using an IP address from the DHCP server in preparation for the conference.
  • The network engineer will verify that the DHCP leasing time is set for a couple of hours.

109. How are port numbers used in the TCP/IP encapsulation process?

  • Source port numbers and destination port numbers are not necessary when UDP is the transport layer protocol being used for the communication.
  • Destination port numbers are assigned automatically and cannot be changed.
  • If multiple conversations occur that are using the same service, the source port number is used to track the separate conversations.
  • Source port and destination port numbers are randomly generated.

Explanation: Both UDP and TCP use port numbers to provide a unique identifier for each conversation. Source port numbers are randomly generated and are used to track different conversations. Destination port numbers identify specific services by using either a default port number for the service or a port number that is assigned manually by a system administrator.

110. A student is sending files from a phone to a computer across a network. Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for reassembling these messages as they are received on the computer?

  • application
  • transport
  • Internet
  • network access

Explanation: The transport layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for the following:

  • Providing reliability mechanisms to ensure all of the message is received
  • Reassembling a message as it is received
  • Identifying which network applications are sending and receiving data

111. Which logical binary operation is used by a network device to determine the network portion of an IPv4 address with a specified subnet mask?

  • AND
  • OR
  • EQUAL
  • NOT

112. A router receives an incoming packet and cannot determine where to forward it. What will the router do?

  • save it until a usable path is installed
  • send it back to the source host
  • drop it
  • broadcast it to directly attached networks

113. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment was sent by PC1 to the web server via port 80. Because of an unexpected network failure, the data was forwarded by R1 but was not received by R2. Which statement is correct about this scenario?

Networking Essentials (Version 2) - Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q113

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Q113

  • The timer on R1 will expire and R1 will resend the segment to R2.​
  • R1 will request that PC1 resend the segment.
  • The web server will not acknowledge this segment. The PC1 timer will expire and PC1 will resend the segment.​
  • R1 forwarded the data to R2 but R2 did not receive it. R2 will send a request to R1 to resend the segment.

Explanation: The TCP protocol works between end devices, not between each device on the network. Routers, switches, etc. do not participate in the packet recovery process. For each TCP segment (or group of segments) sent by a host, there is an acknowledgment. If the sender does not receive an acknowledgment within a period of time, the sender resends the segment.

114. What data representation is used when a computer or network device is processing data?

  • binary
  • readable
  • text
  • inferred

115. What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text in a configuration file?

  • (config)# enable password secret
  • (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password
  • (config-line)# password secret
  • (config)# enable secret Secret_Password
  • (config)# service password-encryption

Explanation: To prevent all configured passwords from appearing in plain text in configuration files, an administrator can execute the service password-encryption command. This command encrypts all configured passwords in the configuration file.

116. Which statement describes the relationship of a physical network and logical IPv4 addressed networks?

  • All devices connected to a physical network need to belong to the same IPv4 logical network.
  • A physical network can connect multiple devices of different IPv4 logical networks.
  • End devices on different IPv4 logical networks can communicate with each other if they all connect to the same switch.
  • A local physical network supports one IPv4 logical network.

Explanation: Multiple IPv4 logical networks can exist on one physical network. The hosts with the same network number in their IPv4 addresses will be able to communicate with each other, but will not be able to communicate with the other hosts with a different network number without the use of routing.

117. A DHCP configured PC boots up. What is the order of the messages that are sent and received by this PC in order to obtain an appropriate IP address?

  • DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK​
  • DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK​
  • DHCPOFFER, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK​
  • DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPACK​

Explanation: During the boot process, the PC starts by broadcasting a DHCPDISCOVER message to request an available IP address. A DHCP server replies with a DHCPOFFER message, which offers a lease to the device. This message contains the IP address and other information. The PC may receive multiple DHCPOFFER messages if there is more than one DHCP server. In this case, the PC must choose one of the server DHCP offerings. The PC broadcasts a DHCPREQUEST message that identifies the explicit server and lease offer that the PC is accepting. Then the server will return a DHCPACK message that acknowledges to the PC that the lease is finalized.

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Luma
Luma
1 day ago

Please, do you have the version of Networking Essentials v.1? Chapter 1-5 Selection Exam and Final Exam

Tomo
Tomo
2 months ago

Where is Final Exam whit 117 questions???