Networking Essentials (Version 2.0) Final Exam SD Answers

NEW version (2023)

Networking Essentials: Course Final Exam Answers

Networking Essentials ( Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam SD Answers

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1. Match the type of malware with the definition.

2. An intruder tries a large number of possibilities in rapid succession to guess a password. As a result, other users on the network are locked out. What type of attack has occurred?

• brute force
• ping of death
• DDoS
• SYN flooding

3. Which three attacks exploit human behavior? (Choose three.)

• zombies
• vishing
• phishing
• brute force
• malware
• pretexting

4. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on a small wireless router?

• It translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.
• It allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.
• It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.
• It identifies the wireless LAN.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

5. Which solution allows external users to access only an internal FTP server on a private network?

• dynamic NAT
• NAT with overload
• port forwarding
• static NAT

6. What is an inherent security vulnerability of SSID broadcasting?

• It broadcasts the identity of the network.
• It allows unauthenticated access to the wireless network.
• It allows any host to join the wireless network.
• It sends traffic unencrypted between the wireless access point and the client.

7. Refer to the exhibit. A newly purchased client laptop has just connected to the local area network. The local area network is using a wireless router that is providing dynamic addressing as shown. Which IP address does the laptop use as a destination address when requesting a dynamically assigned address?

• 255.255.255.0
• 192.168.0.1
• 192.168.0.100
• 255.255.255.255
• 192.168.0.255

8. A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts?

• 252
• 254
• 253
• 251

9. Match each DHCP message type with its description. (Not all options are used.)

10. A client device on an Ethernet segment needs an IP address in order to communicate on the network. A DHCP server with IP address 192.168.1.1 has been configured and enabled on the network. How will a client device obtain a usable IP address for this network?

• Use a statically configured IP address from the pool of IP addresses that is offered by the DHCP server.
• Send a DHCPREQUEST packet to IP address 255.255.255.255.
• Send a DHCPDISCOVER message to physical address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.
• Send a DHCPACK packet to the default gateway address.

11. Which two criteria are used to help select a network medium for a network? (Choose two.)

• the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal
• the environment where the selected medium is to be installed
• the number of intermediate devices that are installed in the network
• the types of data that need to be prioritized
• the cost of the end devices that are used in the network

12. What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

• Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol.
• Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique requirements.
• Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully.
• A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer.

13. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during encapsulation?

• physical layer
• network layer
• data link layer
• transport layer

14. Which wireless RF band do IEEE 802.11b/g devices use?

• 2.4 GHz
• 900 MHz
• 60 GHz
• 5 GHz

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which router port connects to the modem provided by the service provider?

• A
• B
• C
• D

16. Which type of device filtering can be enabled on some wireless access points or wireless routers?

• authentication
• user ID
• MAC address
• IP address

17. Using a systematic troubleshooting approach, a help desk technician suspects a problem at Layer 3 of the OSI model. In gathering information, which two questions are associated with Layer 3? (Choose two.)

• From the PC, is the default gateway reachable using the ping command?
• Is there a link light on the network card?
• Is the PC configured for DHCP?
• Is the network cable plugged in?
• Does a browser connection to www.cisco.com work?

18. A customer calls the help line to report a computer problem. The help line technician responds and works with the customer for some time. However, the technician cannot identify the root cause of the problem. What should the technician do to help the customer?

• Tell the customer that a ticket is created and another technician will contact the user soon.
• Tell the customer that a replacement computer will be shipped immediately.
• Suggest that the customer visit the support website for more detailed information.
• Ask for the email address of the customer in order to send all the support documents for the computer.

19. During a move, employee workstations were disconnected from the network and reconnected in new offices. However, after the move a few workstations cannot get a valid IP address. What should be checked first to identify the root cause of the problem?

• Test if these workstations can ping the default gateway.
• Install all software updates.
• Check the operation status of the DHCP server.
• Make sure the cables are functional and properly plugged.

20. A user is setting up a home wireless network. Which type of device must the user have in order to establish the wireless network and provide access to the internet for multiple home devices?

• switch
• hub
• wireless router
• patch panel

21. A consumer places a smartphone close to a pay terminal at a store and the shopping charge is successfully paid. Which type of wireless technology was used?

• NFC
• Wi-Fi
• 3G
• Bluetooth

22. When troubleshooting network problems, where would a network administrator find the configuration information, such as the computer names and the IP addresses that are used?

• DNS server
• logical topology diagram
• physical topology diagram
• DHCP server

23. Which network migration technique encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets to carry them over IPv4 network infrastructures?

• tunneling
• encapsulation
• dual-stack
• translation

24. A small accounting office is setting up a wireless network to connect end devices and to provide internet access. In which two scenarios does a wireless router perform Network Address Translation (NAT)? (Choose two.)

• when a host is sending packets to a remote site owned by the manufacturer of the wireless router in order to request a digital copy of the device manual
• when a host is sending HTTP packets to the wireless router in order to update the network addressing of the LAN
• when a host is sending packets to the ISP in order to request a speed increase for Internet services
• when a host is sending a print job to a network printer on the LAN
• when a host is sending packets to a local server in order to update the network media settings and music playlists

25. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on a host, what is the impact on communications?

• The host is unable to communicate with hosts on both the local and remote networks.
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host cannot get an IP address from the DHCP server.

26. What are two common media used in networks? (Choose two.)

• wood
• fiber
• water
• copper
• nylon

27. Which two types of interference may affect the data throughput on UTP cables? (Choose two.)

• temperature
• crosstalk
• noise
• EMI
• moisture

28. What are two wiring schemes defined by the TIA/EIA organization for Ethernet installation in homes and businesses? (Choose two.)

• T568B
• T568A
• STP
• UTP
• RJ-45

29. A host needs to reach another host on a remote network, but the ARP cache has no mapping entries. To what destination address will the host send an ARP request?

• the unicast MAC address of the remote host
• the unicast IP address of the remote host
• the broadcast MAC address
• the subnet broadcast IP address

30. Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?

• source MAC address
• destination MAC address
• destination IP address
• source IP address

31. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

• It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.
• It assists in protocol design.
• It prevents designers from creating their own model.
• It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.
• It speeds up packet delivery.

32. Which two devices are considered end devices? (Choose two.)

• router
• laptop
• hub
• switch
• printer

33. Which factor does not influence throughput?

• the operating system that is used by end devices
• the amount of data that is being sent and received on the connection
• the latency that is created by the number of network devices encountered between source and destination
• the type of data that is being transmitted

34. What is a characteristic of a peer-to-peer application?

• The resources required for the application are centralized.
• Each device can act both as a client and a server, but not simultaneously.
• Each device using the application provides a user interface and runs a background service.
• Both devices initiate a three-way handshake to determine who is initiating the communication.

35. Using default settings, what is the next step in the switch boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?

• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
• Perform the POST routine.

36. Which two files, if found, are copied into RAM as a router with the default configuration register setting boots up? (Choose two.)

• running configuration
• startup configuration
• POST diagnostics
• IOS image file

37. What are two features of protocols used within the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

• The Internet Layer IP protocol has built in mechanisms for ensuring the reliable transmission and receipt of data.
• TCP mechanisms retransmit data when an acknowledgment is not received from the destination system within a set period of time.
• The same Transport Layer source port is used for all of the tabs opened at the same time within a web browser.
• TCP and UDP destination port numbers are dynamically generated by the sending device in order to track the responses to requests.
• UDP is used when an application must be delivered as quickly as possible and some loss of data can be tolerated.

38. A student is uploading files from a phone to a server on another network. Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for providing an addressing scheme to transmit the data between the devices?

• transport
• application
• network access
• internet

39. Which statement correctly describes data transmission at the transport layer?

• A single datagram can include both a TCP and a UDP header.
• Both UDP and TCP use port numbers.
• Segmentation is provided by sequence numbers when UDP is used.
• Segmentation is provided by the window size field when the TCP protocol is used.
• Retransmission of lost packets is provided by both TCP and UDP.

40. What type of technology converts analog voice signals into digital data?

• SNMP
• POP3
• VoIP
• SMTP

41. Match the protocol with the function. (Not all options are used.)

42. While a network security product is being deployed, a customizable list of allowable protocols is shown. Which three protocols should be allowed to provide for the use of email on a network? (Choose three.)

• SMTP
• IMAP4
• Telnet
• DNS
• POP3
• HTTP
• TFTP

43. In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller?

• application policies
• control plane
• security
• data plane

44. A user is configuring a wireless access point and wants to prevent any neighbors from discovering the network. What action does the user need to take?

• Enable WPA encryption.
• Configure a DNS server.
• Configure DMZ settings.
• Disable SSID broadcast.

45. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation?

• maintaining communication integrity
• online collaboration
• virtualization
• BYOD

46. A network administrator installs a network device that focuses on interconnecting independent local networks. At which layer of devices does this technology reside?

• access
• internet
• core
• distribution

47. A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?

• The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host.
• The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.
• The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it will be sent directly to the destination host.
• The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.

48. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

• There is no impact on communications.
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.

49. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console interface? (Choose three.)

• interface fastethernet 0/0
• line console 0
• line vty 0 4
• password cisco
• login
• enable secret cisco

50. A network administrator establishes a connection to a switch via SSH. What characteristic uniquely describes the SSH connection?

• direct access to the switch through the use of a terminal emulation program
• remote access to the switch through the use of a telephone dialup connection
• on-site access to a switch through the use of a directly connected PC and a console cable
• remote access to a switch where data is encrypted during the session
• out-of-band access to a switch through the use of a virtual terminal with password authentication

51. Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

• privileged EXEC
• console line
• AUX port
• virtual terminal

52. When configuring SSH on a router to implement secure network management, a network engineer has issued the login local and transport input ssh line vty commands. What three additional configuration actions have to be performed to complete the SSH configuration? (Choose three.)

• Configure role-based CLI access.
• Create a valid local username and password database.
• Set the user privilege levels.
• Configure the correct IP domain name.
• Generate the asymmetric RSA keys.
• Manually enable SSH after the RSA keys are generated.

53. Match the commands to the correct actions. (Not all options are used.)

54. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

• to uniquely identify a host on a network
• to determine the subnet to which the host belongs
• to mask the IP address to outsiders
• to identify whether the address is public or private

55. Which two statements describe characteristics of network addresses? (Choose two.)

• A valid public IPv4 or IPv6 address is needed in order for devices to communicate over the internet.
• DHCP is used to dynamically assign both MAC and IP addresses to devices connected to the network.
• A statically assigned IP address will be valid on any network to which the device connects.
• The MAC address of a device will change when that device moves from one Ethernet network to another.
• A MAC address is also referred to as a physical address because it is permanently embedded on the NIC.

56. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

• Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
• The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
• The range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local network.
• A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.
• Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.
• Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

57. Match the router prompt to the configuration task.

58. A network administrator issues the Switch(config)# Interface FastEthernet 0/1 command on a Cisco switch. Which term is used to describe the “0/1” part in the command?

• argument
• keyword
• hot key
• command

59. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

• Passwords have been configured on the switch.
• One device is attached to a physical interface.
• The switch can be remotely managed.
• Two physical interfaces have been configured.
• The default SVI has been configured.
• Two devices are attached to the switch.

60. Which command can an administrator execute to determine what interface a router will use to reach remote networks?

• show ip route
• show arp
• show protocols
• show interfaces

Old version (2022)

1. What is the difference between the terms bandwidth and throughput?

• Bandwidth measures data transfer of web applications and throughput measures data transfer of video applications.
• Bandwidth is measured with Mb/s and throughput is measured in Kbps.
• Bandwidth is the capacity of data transfer in a network and throughput is the actual data transfer rate.
• Bandwidth represents the data transfer rate in a local network and throughput represents the data transfer rate over the Internet.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

• B, E, G, H
• E, F, H, I, J
• D, E, F, H, I, J
• A, C, D
• C, D, G, H, I, J

3. Which scenario describes a peer-to-peer network?

• A user visits a webpage on the company web site.
• Users print documents from a network printer that has a built-in NIC.
• Users access shared files from a file server.
• A user has shared a printer attached to the workstation.

4. When a computer assembles a frame to be sent over the network, what is the maximum size of an Ethernet frame?

• 64 bytes
• 1518 bytes
• 128 bytes
• 1024 bytes

5. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

• The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.
• The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
• The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
• The switch will discard the frame.
• The switch will forward the frame to all ports.

6. What is the function of ARP?

• resolves domain names to IP addresses
• sends error and operational information messages to hosts
• provides automatic IP address assignments to hosts
• maps IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

7. Users are complaining that they are unable to browse certain websites on the Internet. An administrator can successfully ping a web server via its IP address, but cannot browse to the domain name of the website. Which troubleshooting tool would be most useful in determining where the problem is?

• nslookup
• netstat
• ipconfig
• tracert

8. Match the command to the function.

9. A medium-sized company uses APs, WLCs, and laptops for employee workstations. An employee reports the inability to connect to the Internet. A technician verifies that other workstations can successfully connect to the Internet. What are two possible reasons for the problem? (Choose two.)

• The AP does not have power.
• The wireless client is not configured for DHCP.
• A bad cable exists between the client and the WLC.
• A default gateway is improperly configured on the AP.
• The workstation is out of range.

10. Match the type of attack with the description. (Not all options are used.)

11. Which three attacks exploit vulnerabilities in software? (Choose three.)

• phishing
• Trojan horses
• worms
• viruses
• vishing
• pretexting

12. A file is downloaded from the Internet. After the user opens the downloaded file, the hard drive crashes and all information on the computer is lost. What type of attack occurred?

• worm
• denial of service
• Trojan horse
• virus

13. What are two ways to protect a computer from malware? (Choose two.)

• Keep software up to date.
• Use antivirus software.
• Empty the browser cache.
• Defragment the hard disk.
• Delete unused software.

14. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is restarted?

• ROM
• NVRAM
• flash
• RAM

15. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?

• ROM
• RAM
• NVRAM
• flash

16. Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address that is contained in the frame?

• switch
• hub
• router
• repeater

17. A user is looking for a wireless headphone for listening to songs stored on a smartphone. What wireless technology would the headphone use?

• infrared
• Wi-Fi
• Bluetooth
• 3G/4G

18. Which three features represent benefits of virtualization? (Choose three.)

• less device monitoring
• improved disaster recovery
• less employee technical training
• less equipment
• less power consumption
• fewer security requirements

19. A company has a few employees that are designers. The designers do not have the CAD application loaded on their local computer. Instead, the designers use a CAD application hosted by the application developer. Which type of virtualization is the company using?

• DaaS
• PaaS
• SaaS
• IaaS

20. What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?

• to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device
• to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using
• to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup
• to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS

21. Which two steps are required before SSH can be enabled on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

• Give the router a host name and domain name.
• Create a banner that will be displayed to users when they connect.
• Set up an authentication server to handle incoming connection requests.
• Enable SSH on the physical interfaces where the incoming connection requests will be received.
• Generate a set of secret keys to be used for encryption and decryption.

22. The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

• The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.
• The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
• The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.
• The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.

23. Match the client operation to the network service.

24. What action does a DNS server take if it does not have an entry for a requested URL?

• The server assigns a temporary IP address to the name and sends this IP address to the client.
• The server returns a “page not found” response to the client.
• The server checks with another DNS server to see if it has an entry.
• The server drops the request.

25. A network security administrator is writing documentation on the firewall requirements for allowing Telnet access to the remote server. Which two pieces of information should be included? (Choose two.)

• port 23
• UDP
• port 22
• TCP
• port 20

26. A new employee is attempting to configure a cell phone to connect to the email server of the company. What is the source port number when sending an email from a mobile device?

• The source port number is 143.
• The source port number is dynamically generated.
• The source port number is 25.
• The source port number is 110.

27. Which function does NAT perform in a wireless router?

• NAT takes an internal source IP address and translates it to a global IP address.
• NAT takes a destination IP address and translates it to a global IP address.
• NAT takes a local IP address and translates it to an internal source IP address.
• NAT takes a source IP address and translates it to a default gateway address.

28. What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?

• link-local
• unique local
• global unicast
• loopback

29. A user is setting up a home wireless network. A global address is to be used in NAT translations for traffic flowing through the wireless router. How is this global address assigned?

• The default gateway IP address of the LAN device is used as the global address for NAT translations through the wireless router.
• The network administrator will choose an available IP address from the LAN and configure the global addressing of the wireless router.
• The wireless router will act as a DHCP client in order to receive global addressing from the ISP.
• The host devices will select an unused IP address on the LAN for performing NAT through the wireless router.

30. A network administrator investigates a user problem. The user can reach hosts on the same network, but is unable to communicate to remote networks.The network administrator tries to ping the gateway address configured on the host device and is unsuccessful. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

• TCP/IP is not installed on the host device.
• The IP address of the user is incorrectly configured.
• The default gateway address is incorrect.
• The address of the remote device is incorrect.

31. Which switch command would a network administrator use to determine if there are encapsulation or media errors on an interface?

• show arp
• show ip interface
• show line
• show interfaces

32. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)

The shortcuts with their functions are as follows:
– Tab – Completes the remainder of a partially typed command or keyword
– Space bar – displays the next screen
– ? – provides context-sensitive help
– Up Arrow – Allows user to scroll backward through former commands
– Ctrl-C – cancels any command currently being entered and returns directly to privileged EXEC mode
– Ctrl-Shift-6 – Allows the user to interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute

33. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

34. What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.)

• The SSID is broadcast.
• MAC address filtering is enabled.
• WEP encryption is enabled.
• The wireless channel is automatically selected.
• A well-known administrator password is set.

35. Which security function is provided by a firewall?

• allows or blocks trafic by performing packet filtering and stateful inspection
• passively monitors network traffic and logs intrusion attacks for security analysis
• passively monitors network traffic and automatically blocks intrusion attacks
• aggregates and correlates threat events, contextual information, and network device performance data

36. Which wireless security technology is difficult to crack and provides encryption of network traffic?

• WPA2
• MAC address filtering
• WEP
• EAP

37. When a wireless router is being configured for the first time, what type of wired connection is used?

• modem cable
• console cable
• telephone cable
• Ethernet patch cable

38. Which type of network is covered by the IEEE 802.11 standards?

• Internet
• Wi-Fi
• Ethernet
• WAN

39. Which advanced wireless security measure allows a network administrator to keep sensitive data secure as it travels over the air in a wireless network?

• authentication
• encryption
• MAC address filtering
• traffic filtering

40. Match the TCP/IP model layer to the function.

41. Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)

• TCP/IP
• MAC
• OSI
• IETF
• IEEE
• IANA

42. Which statement is correct about network protocols?

• They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.
• They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
• Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.
• They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.

43. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will the message contain?

• MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255
• both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server
• FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server
• FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255

44. When designing an IP address scheme, what is a benefit of using DHCP to assign host addresses?

• Devices on the Internet can easily locate the hosts and send data to them.
• Hosts are permanently assigned an address by the DHCP server so that they are easier to manage
• A gateway address is not required for hosts on one subnet to communicate with hosts on another subnet.
• Changing the subnetting scheme does not require manually reassigning individual host addresses.

45. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

• dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses
• predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
• addresses from different subnets for redundancy
• random static addresses to improve security

46. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

• multicast address
• host address
• broadcast address
• network address

47. What is the decimal equivalent to binary 11110000?

• 192
• 248
• 224
• 240

48. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?

• unicast
• limited broadcast
• directed broadcast
• multicast

49. A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

• source MAC address
• DNS server
• default gateway
• source port number
• HTTP server

50. Which three configuration components are required to allow a host to communicate with other hosts on remote networks? (Choose three.)

• IP address
• domain name
• default gateway
• DNS server
• subnet mask
• DHCP server address

51. Which two methods are used to directly connect mobile devices such as tablets and smartphones to a data network? (Choose two.)

• WiMax
• Wi-Fi
• Bluetooth
• cellular communications
• wired Ethernet

52. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

• because HTTP requires reliable delivery
• to ensure the fastest possible download speed
• because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
• because transmission errors can be tolerated easily

53. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 needs to resolve the host name of the web server into an IP address by using DNS. What destination IP address and destination port number will PC1 assign to the DNS query packet?​

• 192.168.20.2 port 80
• 192.168.10.1 port 53
• 192.168.20.3 port 53
• 192.168.20.2 port 53
• 192.168.20.3 port 80

54. When is UDP preferred to TCP?

• when all the data must be fully received before any part of it is considered useful
• when segments must arrive in a very specific sequence to be processed successfully
• when a client sends a segment to a server
• when an application can tolerate some loss of data during transmission

55. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

56. When a router receives a packet, what information must be examined in order for the packet to be forwarded to a remote destination?

• source IP address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source MAC address

57. A user can access a file share resource on a server located in the same office but cannot access the internet. What is the possible cause?

• The default gateway address is misconfigured on the PC.
• The switch is malfunctioning.
• The DHCP server is disconnected.
• The IPv4 address and subnet mask are misconfigured on the PC.

58. A network technician is extending the network from the main office building over several hundred meters to a new security station. The security station needs a high speed connection to support video surveillance of the main building. What type of cable is best suited to connect the security station to the rest of the main office network?

• fiber optic
• unshielded twisted pair
• shielded twisted pair
• coax

59. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated
• lower installation cost
• durable connections
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• greater distances per cable run

60. Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?

• Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
• Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
• Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
• Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.

61. Which three protocols operate at the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

• ARP
• POP3
• TCP
• DHCP
• FTP
• UDP

62. Which network design solution will best extend access layer connectivity to host devices?

• implementing EtherChannel
• implementing redundancy
• implementing routing protocols
• implementing wireless connectivity

63. Which network server is malfunctioning if a user can ping the IP address of a web server but cannot ping the web server host name?

• the DHCP server
• the DNS server
• the FTP server
• the HTTP server

64. A PC is not able to connect to a wired network. Pinging the loopback address is successful, but the gateway cannot be reached. On the network switch all the interface lights are on, except for the interface connected to the PC. The LED on the network card is off. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

• The gateway needs to be fixed.
• The network cable is faulty.
• The PC has an incorrect IP address for the DNS server.
• The network switch is faulty.

65. What are two benefits of wireless networks over wired networks? (Choose two.)

• increased security
• anytime, anywhere connectivity
• immunity to interference
• speed
• mobility

66. Which technology is used to uniquely identify a WLAN network?

• MAC address table
• SSID
• WEP
• WPA

67. Match the components in the notation 100Base-T to the specification. (Not all options are used.)

68. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

• transport
• physical
• network
• data link
• session

69. Which address is a valid IPv6 address that could be assigned to a host?

• 2001:db8::1111::200/80
• 2001:db8::1111::200/64​
• 2001:db8:0:1111::200/44
• 2001:db8:0:1111::200/120​

70. What does the letter C mean next to an entry in the output of the show ip route command?

• It identifies a network that is a static route.
• It identifies a network that is learned through OSPF.
• It identifies a network that is learned through EIGRP.
• It identifies a network that is directly connected to the router.

71. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

• the first Ethernet port interface
• the switch virtual interface
• the console port interface
• the AUX interface

72. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)

• ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
• Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
• RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
• ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
• Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.
• NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.

73. Which feature is characteristic of MAC filtering in wireless networks?

• It restricts computer access to a wireless network.
• It encrypts data that is transmitted on a wireless network.
• It allows only authorized users to detect the network.
• It is configured on the computer rather than on the router.

74. Which two statements about a Service Set Identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)

• It is responsible for determining the signal strength.
• It tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs.
• All wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID.
• It provides strong wireless security.
• It is used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network.

75. What are three characteristics of UTP cabling? (Choose three.)

• susceptible to EMI and RFI
• commonly used for Internet connectivity by a cable TV provider
• easiest type of networking cable to install
• commonly used between buildings
• uses light to transmit data
• most commonly used networking cable

76. Which three factors should be considered when choosing the appropriate network media? (Choose three.)

• the data security and fault tolerance requirement
• the environment in which the media is installed
• the amount of data and the data transfer rate desired
• the operating systems used on network devices in the network
• the distance between hosts that the media will connect
• the speed of the CPU and amount of memory in servers

77. What is an advantage of the peer-to-peer network model?

• high level of security
• scalability
• ease of setup
• centralized administration

78. Which three devices are considered intermediate devices in a network? (Choose three.)

• wireless access point
• network printer
• server
• switch
• workstation
• router

79. Which two devices are shared peripherals? (Choose two.)

• touch-pad with digital stylus
• printer
• scanner
• tablet
• laptop

80. Which is a characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?​

• does not require management console software
• has direct access to server hardware resources
• best suited for enterprise environments
• installs directly on hardware

81. A network administrator attempted to access the company website and received a “page not found” error. The next day the administrator checked the web server logs and noticed that during the same hour that the site failed to load, there was an unusually large number of requests for the website home page. All of the requests originated from the same IP address. Given this information, what might the network administrator conclude?

• The web server was turned off and was not able to service requests.
• It is normal web surfing activity.
• It is likely that someone attempted a DoS attack.
• The link to the website does not have enough capacity and needs to be increased.

82. What technique is used in social engineering attacks?

• sending junk email
• man-in-the-middle
• phishing
• buffer overflow

83. Which three IP addresses are considered private addresses? (Choose three.)

• 192.168.5.29
• 172.17.254.4
• 128.37.255.6
• 198.168.6.18
• 172.68.83.35
• 10.234.2.1

84. Which two application layer protocols manage the exchange of messages between a client with a web browser and a remote web server? (Choose two.)

• HTTPS
• HTML
• DHCP
• HTTP
• DNS

85. Match the port number to the email protocol.

86. Which protocol is used by a server that needs to send an email message to another server in order to support successful delivery of the message?

• SMTP
• DNS
• POP3
• IMAP4

87. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• It connects multiple IP networks.
• It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
• It determines the best path to send packets.
• It manages the VLAN database.
• It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

88. Which statement describes a major characteristic of a local area network?

• A LAN is under one administrative control.
• A LAN is implemented in a corporation to connect all of its offices.
• A LAN connects remote users to the main corporate office.
• A LAN can contain up to 100 hosts.

89. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

• subnet mask
• DNS address
• host IP address
• default gateway address

90. A law firm uses DHCPv4 to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses for staff workstations. The DHCP policy specifies that the lease period is 7 days. A staff member returns to the office after 2 weeks of vacation. When the employee turns on the workstation, which DHCPv4 message is sent by the workstation to obtain a valid IPv4 address?

• DHCPACK broadcast message
• DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
• DHCPOFFER unicast message
• DHCPREQUEST unicast message

91. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)

Answer

92. Which three layers of the OSI model make up the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

• presentation
• transport
• application
• network
• session
• data link

93. What are two characteristics of 802.11 wireless networks? (Choose two.)

• Stations can transmit at any time.
• They use CSMA/CA technology.
• They are collision-free networks.
• They use CSMA/CD technology.
• Collisions can exist in the networks.

94. Which function is supplied by the access layer in a three-layer network design?

• application of policies
• backbone connectivity
• routing
• network access
• high-speed connectivity

95. When a LAN is connected to the internet using a wireless router, how do devices on the LAN communicate on the internet using NAT?

• Each LAN must select a single client device from the wireless router settings that can communicate to the internet via NAT.
• Only a small group of high priority client devices can be chosen by the wireless router to communicate to the internet using NAT.
• Each device must wait to receive a token from the wireless router in order to communicate to the internet via NAT.
• All devices must share the single public IPv4 address assigned to the wireless router in order to communicate to the internet via NAT.

96. In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

• when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic
• when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port
• when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device
• when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed

97. When would the Cisco IOS image held in ROM be used to boot the router?

• when the full IOS cannot be found
• during a normal boot process
• when the running configuration directs the router to do this
• during a file transfer operation

98. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot a simple network problem that seems to be caused by software. Which troubleshooting approach should be used?

• divide and conquer
• bottom-up
• top-down
• substitution

99. A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

• user EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• setup mode
• global configuration mode

100. Which three features represent benefits of virtualization? (Choose three.)

• fewer security requirements
• less power consumption
• improved disaster recovery
• less equipment
• less device monitoring
• less employee technical training

101. What is a difference between the functions of Cloud computing and virtualization?

• Cloud computing utilizes data center technology whereas virtualization is not used in data centers.
• Cloud computing provides services on web-based access whereas virtualization provides services on data access through virtualized
• Internet connections.
• Cloud computing separates the application from the hardware whereas virtualization separates the OS from the underlying hardware.
• Cloud computing requires hypervisor technology whereas virtualization is a fault tolerance technology.

102. Which two types of devices provide dynamic IPv4 addressing for internal hosts on a local network? (Choose two.)

• ISP DHCP server
• PC-based DHCP client
• wireless router
• PC-based DHCP server
• ISP router

103. A technician uses an application to capture packets on the network. One such capture reveals the password that is used by a person in the classroom to initiate a Telnet session with a school network device. What recommendation could the technician make to the person who is using Telnet?

• If possible, enable the network device to use SSH instead of Telnet.
• If possible, configure the business firewall to filter port 23.
• If possible, encrypt the Telnet password on the classroom computer.
• If possible, use a VPN tunnel from the classroom computer to the network device.

104. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

• Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
• End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business network.
• Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
• Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.

105. A technician is tasked with connecting a printer directly to the network and making it accessible to all staff in the general vicinity. What type of network cable is most likely used to connect the printer?

• RJ-11
• fiber-optic
• coaxial
• twisted-pair

106. What benefit does DHCP provide to a network?

• DHCP allows users to refer to locations by a name rather than an IP address.
• Hosts always have the same IP address and are therefore always reachable.
• Hosts can connect to the network and get an IP address without manual configuration.
• Duplicate addresses cannot occur on a network that issues dynamic addresses using DHCP and has static assignments.

107. What is the first step that a switch performs during the bootup sequence?

• Low-level CPU initialization begins.
• POST is initiated.
• The default IOS image is loaded.
• The boot loader is loaded.

108. A network engineer working at a community building that provides free WiFi is holding an IT conference tomorrow evening. A previous conference with over 100 attendees just ended less than 24 hours ago and the network engineer is concerned about the availability of dynamic addressing. How will the network engineer ensure that there are enough IP addresses for the attendees arriving at the IT conference tomorrow?

• The network engineer will create a new pool of IP addresses and provide a new network subnet and router configuration for the conference.
• The network engineer will manually release each lease created by the conference attendees yesterday and statically assign the incoming devices at the conference.
• The network engineer will disconnect all devices using an IP address from the DHCP server in preparation for the conference.
• The network engineer will verify that the DHCP leasing time is set for a couple of hours.

109. How are port numbers used in the TCP/IP encapsulation process?

• Source port numbers and destination port numbers are not necessary when UDP is the transport layer protocol being used for the communication.
• Destination port numbers are assigned automatically and cannot be changed.
• If multiple conversations occur that are using the same service, the source port number is used to track the separate conversations.
• Source port and destination port numbers are randomly generated.

110. A student is sending files from a phone to a computer across a network. Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for reassembling these messages as they are received on the computer?

• application
• transport
• Internet
• network access

111. Which logical binary operation is used by a network device to determine the network portion of an IPv4 address with a specified subnet mask?

• AND
• OR
• EQUAL
• NOT

112. A router receives an incoming packet and cannot determine where to forward it. What will the router do?

• save it until a usable path is installed
• send it back to the source host
• drop it
• broadcast it to directly attached networks

113. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment was sent by PC1 to the web server via port 80. Because of an unexpected network failure, the data was forwarded by R1 but was not received by R2. Which statement is correct about this scenario?

• The timer on R1 will expire and R1 will resend the segment to R2.​
• R1 will request that PC1 resend the segment.
• The web server will not acknowledge this segment. The PC1 timer will expire and PC1 will resend the segment.​
• R1 forwarded the data to R2 but R2 did not receive it. R2 will send a request to R1 to resend the segment.

114. What data representation is used when a computer or network device is processing data?

• binary
• readable
• text
• inferred

115. What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text in a configuration file?

• (config)# enable password secret
• (config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password
• (config-line)# password secret
• (config)# enable secret Secret_Password
• (config)# service password-encryption

116. Which statement describes the relationship of a physical network and logical IPv4 addressed networks?

• All devices connected to a physical network need to belong to the same IPv4 logical network.
• A physical network can connect multiple devices of different IPv4 logical networks.
• End devices on different IPv4 logical networks can communicate with each other if they all connect to the same switch.
• A local physical network supports one IPv4 logical network.

117. A DHCP configured PC boots up. What is the order of the messages that are sent and received by this PC in order to obtain an appropriate IP address?

• DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK​
• DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK​
• DHCPOFFER, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK​
• DHCPREQUEST, DHCPOFFER, DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPACK​