CyberOps Associate (Version 1.0) – Modules 11 – 12: Network Infrastructure Security Group Exam
1. What is an advantage of HIPS that is not provided by IDS?
- HIPS protects critical system resources and monitors operating system processes.
- HIPS deploys sensors at network entry points and protects critical network segments.
- HIPS monitors network processes and protects critical files.
- HIPS provides quick analysis of events through detailed logging.
2. Which statement describes a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
- RADIUS separates authentication and authorization whereas TACACS+ combines them as one process.
- RADIUS is supported by the Cisco Secure ACS software whereas TACACS+ is not.
- RADIUS uses TCP whereas TACACS+ uses UDP.
- RADIUS encrypts only the password whereas TACACS+ encrypts all communication.
3. What are two disadvantages of using an IDS? (Choose two.)
- The IDS does not stop malicious traffic.
- The IDS works offline using copies of network traffic.
- The IDS has no impact on traffic.
- The IDS analyzes actual forwarded packets.
- The IDS requires other devices to respond to attacks.
4. Which statement describes one of the rules that govern interface behavior in the context of implementing a zone-based policy firewall configuration?
- An administrator can assign interfaces to zones, regardless of whether the zone has been configured.
- An administrator can assign an interface to multiple security zones.
- By default, traffic is allowed to flow among interfaces that are members of the same zone.
- By default, traffic is allowed to flow between a zone member interface and any interface that is not a zone member.
5. Which technique is necessary to ensure a private transfer of data using a VPN?
6. What is the function of the distribution layer of the three-layer network design model?
- providing direct access to the network
- providing secure access to the Internet
- aggregating access layer connections
- providing high speed connection to the network edge
7. What two components of traditional web security appliances are examples of functions integrated into a Cisco Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)
- email virus and spam filtering
- VPN connection
- web reporting
- URL filtering
8. Which AAA component can be established using token cards?
9. Which statement describes a VPN?
- VPNs use open source virtualization software to create the tunnel through the Internet.
- VPNs use dedicated physical connections to transfer data between remote users.
- VPNs use logical connections to create public networks through the Internet.
- VPNs use virtual connections to create a private network through a public network.
10. What is a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)?
- It detects and stops potential direct attacks but does not scan for malware.
- It is an agentless system that scans files on a host for potential malware.
- It identifies potential attacks and sends alerts but does not stop the traffic.
- It combines the functionalities of antimalware applications with firewall protection.
11. Which two devices would commonly be found at the access layer of the hierarchical enterprise LAN design model? (Choose two.)
- modular switch
- Layer 3 device
- Layer 2 switch
- access point
12. Which two statements are true about NTP servers in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
- There can only be one NTP server on an enterprise network.
- NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source.
- NTP servers control the mean time between failures (MTBF) for key network devices.
- NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information.
- All NTP servers synchronize directly to a stratum 1 time source.
13. In the data gathering process, which type of device will listen for traffic, but only gather traffic statistics?
- NetFlow collector
- SNMP agent
- syslog server
14. Which two protocols are link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
15. What type of route is created when a network administrator manually configures a route that has an active exit interface?
- directly connected
16. Which characteristic describes a wireless client operating in active mode?
- must be configured for security before attaching to an AP
- broadcasts probes that request the SSID
- ability to dynamically change channels
- must know the SSID to connect to an AP
17. What are two types of addresses found on network end devices? (Choose two.)
18. What is a characteristic of the WLAN passive discover mode?
- The client must know the name of the SSID to begin the discover process.
- The client begins the discover process by sending a probe request.
- The beaconing feature on the AP is disabled.
- The AP periodically sends beacon frames containing the SSID.
19. What is a characteristic of a routed port that is configured on a Cisco switch?
- It supports subinterfaces.
- It is associated with a single VLAN.
- It runs STP to prevent loops.
- It is assigned an IP address.
20. What action does an Ethernet switch take when it receives a frame with an unknown Layer 2 source address?
- It forwards the frame out all interfaces except the interface on which it was received.
- It forwards the frame to the default gateway.
- It records the source address in the address table of the switch.
- It drops the frame.
21.. Match each device to a category.
22. Which routing protocol is used to exchange routes between internet service providers?
23. What is the first step in the CSMA/CA process when a wireless client is attempting to communicate on the wireless network?
- The client sends an RTS message to the AP.
- The client sends a test frame onto the channel.
- The client listens for traffic on the channel.
- The AP sends a CTS message to the client.
24. What Wi-Fi management frame is regularly broadcast by APs to announce their presence?
25. What are the three parts of all Layer 2 frames? (Choose three.)
- source and destination IP address
- sequence number
- frame check sequence
26. What is a function of SNMP?
- synchronizes the time across all devices on the network
- captures packets entering and exiting the network interface card
- provides a message format for communication between network device managers and agents
- provides statistical analysis on packets flowing through a Cisco router or multilayer switch
27. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?
- application filtering
- stateful packet inspection
- packet filtering
- URL filtering
28. In which memory location is the routing table of a router maintained?
29. Lightweight access points forward data between which two devices on the network? (Choose two.)
- wireless router
- default gateway
- wireless LAN controller
- autonomous access point
- wireless client
30. A Cisco router is running IOS 15. What are the two routing table entry types that will be added when a network administrator brings an interface up and assigns an IP address to the interface? (Choose two.)
- route that is manually entered by a network administrator
- local route interface
- route that is learned via OSPF
- directly connected interface
- route that is learned via EIGRP
31. Match the secunty service with the description.
Match the security service with the description.
32. Match the network security device type with the descnption.
33. What is used on WLANs to avoid packet collisions?
34. What information within a data packet does a router use to make forwarding decisions?
- the destination MAC address
- the destination host name
- the destination service requested
- the destination IP address
35. What is a characteristic of a hub?
- operates at Layer 2
- regenerates signals received on one port out all other ports
- subdivides the network into collision domains
- uses CSMA/CA to avoid collisions
36. Match the network security device type with the description.