IT Essentials 8.0 Bridge Course Final Exam Answers (ITEv8)

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IT Essentials (Version 700) – IT Essentials 8.0 Bridge Final exam Answers

1. Which DNS resource record is used to resolve a domain name to an IPv6 address?

  • A
  • AAAA
  • MX
  • TXT

Explanation: The AAAA RR is used to resolve a domain name to an IPv6 address.

2. Which DNS SPAM management feature uses cryptography by creating a TXT RR that contains the public encryption key of the domain?

  • SPF
  • DKIM
  • DMARC

Explanation: DKIM uses cryptography by creating a TXT RR that contains the public encryption key of the domain.

3. Which message is broadcasted by a DHCPv4 client to initiate the lease obtaining process?

  • DHCPACK
  • DHCPDISCOVER
  • DHCPOFFER
  • DHCPREQUEST

Explanation: The DHCP client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to request an IP configuration from a DHCP server.

4. Which message is unicasted by a DHCPv4 server to confirm that the host can use the offered IP configuration?

  • DHCPACK
  • DHCPDISCOVER
  • DHCPOFFER
  • DHCPREQUEST

Explanation: The server removes the IP configuration from its pool of available IP configurations and sends a unicast acknowledgement (DHCPACK) to the DHCP client to confirm that it can use the address until the lease expires.

5. Which two messages are used in the DHCP lease renewal process (Choose two.)?

  • DHCPACK
  • DHCPDISCOVER
  • DHCPOFFER
  • DHCPREQUEST

6. Which of the following are based on logical connections, instead of physical connections?

  • VLANS
  • Subnets
  • DNS entries
  • unverified switch ports

Explanation: VLANs are based on logical connections, instead of physical connections

7. What is the file type that can contain all the installation files for an operating system?

  • EXE
  • DLL
  • ISO
  • BAT

8. Which graphics card is recommended for intense 3D art rendering and video editing?

  • Dedicated graphics card
  • Integrated graphics processor

9. What Windows Deployment Tool would a technician use to deploy applications to multiple computers across a given network?

  • Group Policy
  • Local Security Policy
  • EFS
  • APIPA

Explanation: Windows deployment tools, such as Group Policy, can be used to deploy the applications to multiple workstations from the server. An administrator sets up the installer packages and copies the packages on the shared network folder for distribution. The administrator creates Group Policy Objects (GPO) in the Group Policy Manager to deploy the application from the network shared folder to the target computers.

10. A user believes their gaming PC has been compromised because a gaming application provided location information. Which Windows 10 feature could be used to enable or disable the sharing of location information?

  • apps settings
  • privacy and security settings
  • account settings
  • gaming settings

Explanation: By providing the location information, it can enhance your gaming or mobile device experience; however, your location may become available to threat actors. You can choose which applications can access the location services by going to the Privacy & Security settings (choose the location tab and select which applications can be allowed to access the location services).

11. After cables were reconnected to a switch in a wiring closet, several PCs that had been previously configured manually can no longer access resources outside the local network. The PC configurations were not altered in the process and resources on the local network can still be accessed. What is a possible cause of the problem?

  • The PCs are no longer on the correct VLAN.
  • The DNS configuration on the PCs is incorrect.
  • The DHCP server has been misconfigured.
  • The cabling to the PCs is faulty.

Explanation: The PCs have been manually configured and confirmed to be correct, so DHCP and DNS configurations are not factors in this problem. The PCs can still access local resources, so there is not a cabling problem.

12. A technician wants to upgrade several computers to Windows 10 over the network. Which of the following boot methods supports this upgrade method?

  • SSH
  • HTTPS
  • HTTP
  • PXE

Explanation: To be able to install Windows 10 from WDS (Windows Deployment Server) over PXE boot, your WDS server MUST have at least one install and one boot image. The boot image is what you will boot to from the Network while the Install image is the actual OS image you will install. You must also have a DHCP server with a scope configured for PXE.

13. What happens when you are running a game in Windows 10 and have turned on the Gaming mode?

  • prevents Windows Update from performing driver installations and sending restart notifications
  • prevents the antivirus program from running in the background
  • prevents Windows defender from running in the background
  • gives 100% of the CPU cycle to the GPU

Explanation: When you use Game Mode, Windows prioritizes your gaming experience by turning things off in the background. When you’re running a game, Game Mode:
Prevents Windows Update from performing driver installations and sending restart notifications
Helps achieve a more stable frame rate depending on the specific game and system

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which commands would the technician enter in Windows 10 PowerShell to determine the GUID of the GPT partition displayed?

DISKPART> select disk 0
DISKPART> uniqueid disk

C:\WINDOWS\system32> diskpart
DISKPART> select disk 0

DISKPART> list disk
DISKPART> select disk 0

DISKPART> select disk 0
C:\WINDOWS\system32> sfc/scannow

Explanation: You would use the following commands in order to determine the GUID of the GPT partition of a disk:
a. To determine your partition style:, right-click Start > select Windows PowerShell (Admin). Click Yes.
b. At the prompt, enter diskpart to start Microsoft DiskPart.
PS C:\WINDOWS\system32> diskpart
c. At the prompt, enter list disk to list all the disks on the system. The * under the Gpt column indicates that the disk uses Gpt for the partition style.
DISKPART> list disk
d. To determine the GUID of the GPT partition, enter select disk 0 at the prompt.
DISKPART> select disk 0 Disk 0 is now the selected disk.
e. At the prompt, enter uniqueid disk to display the UUID of disk 0.
DISKPART> uniqueid disk

15. Which statement describes how hosts on VLANs communicate?

  • Hosts on different VLANs can communicate using a wireless network.
  • Hosts on different VLANs can communicate using a layer 2 switch.
  • Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.
  • Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.

Explanation: Traffic cannot pass directly to another VLAN (between broadcast domains) within the switch or between two switches. To interconnect two different VLANs, you must use routers or Layer 3 switches.

16. A technician is trying to upgrade a computer running Windows 10 Pro to Windows 11 Pro. The computer hardware specs are as follows:

  • 512 GB SSD drive
  • 8 GB RAM
  • a graphics card compatible with DirectX 12 or later with WDDM 2.0 driver
  • Trusted Platform Module (TPM) version 1.0.
  • Secure boot capable BIOS
  • Intel i7 Quad Core Processor

During the installation, the following message is displayed “This PC doesn’t currently meet all the system requirements for Windows 11”. What is the most probable reason for this?

  • Secure Boot has not been enabled in the bios
  • the PC is not connected to the internet
  • the ISO is corrupt
  • the Trusted Platform Module should be version 2

Explanation: While the requirement to upgrade a Windows 10 device to Windows 11 is only that the PC be Secure Boot capable by having UEFI/BIOS enabled, you may also consider enabling or turning Secure Boot on for better security.
The minimum requirements to upgrade a computer running Windows 10 Pro to Windows 11 Pro are:
Processor: 1 gigahertz (GHz) or faster with 2 or more cores on a compatible 64-bit processor or System on a Chip (SoC).
RAM: 4 gigabytes (GB).
Storage: 64 GB or larger storage device.
System firmware: UEFI, Secure Boot capable.
TPM: Trusted Platform Module (TPM) version 2.0.
Graphics card: Compatible with DirectX 12 or later with WDDM 2.0 driver.
Note- While the requirement to upgrade a Windows 10 device to Windows 11 is only that the PC be Secure Boot capable by having UEFI/BIOS enabled, you may also consider enabling or turning Secure Boot on for better security.

17. Where can you configure the recording time in Windows 10 in order to capture your game play?

  • Start > Settings > Gaming > Xbox Game Bar
  • Start > Settings > Gaming > Captures
  • Start > Settings > Gaming > Game Mode
  • Start > Settings > Privacy

Explanation: Windows 10 has integrated Game Bar settings. You can use it to adjust the length of recording time by going to Start > Settings > Gaming > Capture.

18. Which Windows 10 security feature helps to reduce the risk of malware exploiting the privileges of the Administrators group?

  • SFC
  • DNS
  • EFS
  • UAC

Explanation: UAC (User Account Control) is a security feature in Windows 10 that prevents unauthorized or inadvertent changes to the operating system. With UAC, apps and tasks always run in the security context of a non-administrator account, unless an administrator specifically authorizes administrator-level access to the system.

19. What is two-factor authentication (2FA)?

  • two different authentication factors are used for verification
  • two different passwords are used for verification
  • the password undergoes two hashing functions
  • two passwords undergo two separate hashing functions

Explanation: Two-factor authentication (2FA), sometimes referred to as two-step verification, is a security process in which users provide two different authentication factors to verify themselves.

20. A technician wants to upgrade a user computer to Windows 10 but keep the current settings and files intact during the new installation. Which upgrade method should the technician use?

  • clean install
  • network install
  • image deployment
  • in-place upgrade

Explanation: An in-place OS upgrade will start the upgrade setup from the existing OS and keep all the customized configurations and user data, and avoid reinstallation of all the applications and restoration of data.

21. Which security method in Windows 10 uses a single username and password once for multiple applications?

  • EFS
  • SSO
  • permission propagation
  • inheritance

Explanation: Single sign-on allows the users to access multiple applications with one username and password. The user only needs to remember one username and password, so they are less likely to lose or write down their credentials.

22. A technician is setting up a booth at a company job fair. The technician needs to ensure job seekers can interact with the company application securely and limit all other activities on the laptop. The technician must also ensure that whenever the computer is rebooted or powered on it logs on automatically without a password. Which account type would the technician set up on this kiosk machine to do this?

  • Administrator
  • Power user
  • Guest
  • Standard user

Explanation: In Windows 10, the Guest account is a particular local user account with very limited permissions. It has the following restrictions:
It doesn’t have a password and passwords cannot be set for it.
It cannot install apps, desktop apps or hardware devices.
It can use only the apps and desktop programs that were installed on your PC or device when the Guest account was enabled.
It cannot change its account type, name or picture.

23. Which two features in Microsoft Windows 10 require a user to input the Windows Hello Pin in order to set them up?

  • File encryption using EFS
  • Window Hello Facial
  • Windows PC Privacy Settings
  • Window Hello Fingerprint
  • Folder encryption using EFS

Explanation: Windows Hello Fingerprint and Windows Hello Facial features require you to enter your Windows Pin in order to set them up.

24. Match the resource record type with its use.

25. Match the type of Fire Extinguisher required for the type of fire described,

Explanation: The types of fire extinguishers and their use are:
Water: solid combustibles such as wood, paper and textiles
AFFF foam: flammable liquids
Carbon dioxide (CO2) electrical equipment
ABC powder: engines and electrical equipment located outdoors
De-Ionized water mist: solid combustibles such as wood, paper and textiles, electrical equipment, and flammable liquids
Wet chemical: deep fat fires

26. The acronym for putting out a fire using a fire extinguisher is PASS. What does PASS stand for?

  • Pin, Angle, Squeeze, Spread
  • Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
  • Pin, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
  • Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Spread
  • Pull, Accuracy, Squeeze, Spread

Explanation: The acronym PASS stands for:
P – Pull the pin.
A – Aim at the base of the fire, not at the flames.
S – Squeeze the lever.
S – Sweep the nozzle from side to side.

27. What is the function of the Secure Boot setting in UEFI firmware?

  • it allows for support of up to 2.2 terabyte hard drives
  • it enables only Windows 8 or Windows 10 to be used as an operating system
  • it increases the boot upload speed
  • it enables AHCI (Advanced Host Controller Interface) mode

Explanation: UEFI will check the boot loader before launching it and ensure it is signed by Microsoft (only supported by Windows 8 ,10 and 11). If a rootkit or another piece of malware does replace your boot loader or tamper with it, UEFI won’t allow it to boot. This prevents malware from hijacking your boot process and concealing itself from your operating system.

28. When an end device requests services from a DHCPv4 server it receives a host IPv4 address and a subnet mask. Which two other IPv4 addresses are also typically provided to a DCHPv4 client? (Choose two.)

  • local HTTP web server address
  • DNS server address
  • automatic private IPv4 address
  • LAN default gateway address
  • LAN NTP server address

Explanation: LAN NTP server and local HTTP web server addresses are not provided by DHCP. Automatic private IPv4 addresses (APIPA) are used by DHCP clients when the clients fail to connect to a DHCPv4 server.

29. What is an acceptable use policy?

  • It is an agreement between two or more parties that defines the appropriate user access to resources or services.
  • It is used to identify potential issues, provide insights for improvements, and take corrective action to prevent critical and major future incidents .
  • It is a step-by-step instruction guide detailing how to access computers and networked services efficiently and securely.
  • It is a centralized repository of articles and documents that allows the users to create, share, and manage knowledge across the organization.

Explanation: An acceptable user policy (AUP) is an agreement between two or more parties that defines the appropriate user access to resources or services. Before the users are granted access, the users must agree to the AUP and follow the policy outlined in AUP.

30. Match the stages of the procurement lifecycle to the scenarios described.

31. What action must be performed first when disposing of an asset that has reached the end of its lifecycle?

  • destroy the asset
  • donate or recycle the asset
  • sanitize any data contained in the asset
  • find the appropriate waste disposal company

Explanation: When an asset has reached end of life, the asset should be sanitized of any data. The sanitized asset can be sold, recycled, donated, or destroyed. The asset management database should be updated to reflect the change in the status of the asset.

32. What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

  • for hosts on other subnets to receive the information
  • to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address
  • for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information
  • to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased

Explanation: The DHCPREQUEST message is broadcast to inform other DHCP servers that an IP address has been leased.

33. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)

  • The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
  • The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
  • All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
  • The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
  • The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
  • Only the DHCP server receives the message.

Explanation: When a host configured to use DHCP powers up on a network it sends a DHCPDISCOVER message. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF is the L2 broadcast address. A DHCP server replies with a unicast DHCPOFFER message back to the host.

34. Match each DHCP message type with its description. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 2 v7 Modules 1 – 4: Switching Concepts, VLANs, and InterVLAN Routing Exam Answers

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:
a client initiating a message to find a DHCP server – DHCPDISCOVER
a DHCP server responding to the initial request by a client – DHCPOFFER
the client accepting the IP address provided by the DHCP server – DHCPREQUEST
the DHCP server confirming that the lease has been accepted – DHCPACK

35. What type of information is contained in a DNS MX record?

  • the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of the alias used to identify a service
  • the IP address for an FQDN entry
  • the IP address of an authoritative name server
  • the domain name mapped to a mail exchange server

Explanation: A Mail Exchange (MX) resource record identifies one or more email exchange servers that are responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a domain name.

36. Match the DHCP message with the port numbers and message types used.

37. Which DNS SPAM Management feature uses an unencrypted RR to identify authorized servers permitted to send emails from the domain?

  • DMARC
  • DKIM
  • SPF
  • AAAA

Explanation: Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is a special TXT resource record that identifies authorized servers permitted to send emails from that domain.

38. Which type of server keeps a list of domain names and their associated IP address information in resource records (RRs)?

  • DNS
  • WINS
  • Domain controller
  • DHCP

Explanation: A DNS server keeps a list of domain names and IP addresses information in resource records (RRs). This list of RRs is stored on a DNS server in a DNS zone database.


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Sandy
Sandy
3 days ago

Match the stages of the procurement lifecycle to the scenarios described.

Place the options in the following order:
Disposal
Deployment
Procurement
Maintenance
Planning

Sandy
Sandy
3 days ago

A technician is trying to upgrade a computer running Windows 10 Pro to Windows 11 Pro. The computer hardware specs are as follows:

  • 512 GB SSD drive
  • 8 GB RAM
  • a graphics card compatible with DirectX 12 or later with WDDM 2.0 driver
  • Trusted Platform Module (TPM) version 1.0.
  • Secure boot capable BIOS
  • Intel i7 Quad Core Processor

During the installation, the following message is displayed “This PC doesn’t currently meet all the system requirements for Windows 11”. What is the most probable reason for this?

CORRECT
the Trusted Platform Module should be version 2

COMMENTS

While the requirement to upgrade a Windows 10 device to Windows 11 is only that the PC be Secure Boot capable by having UEFI/BIOS enabled, you may also consider enabling or turning Secure Boot on for better security.
The minimum requirements to upgrade a computer running Windows 10 Pro to Windows 11 Pro are:

  • Processor: 1 gigahertz (GHz) or faster with 2 or more cores on a compatible 64-bit processor or System on a Chip (SoC).
  • RAM: 4 gigabytes (GB).
  • Storage: 64 GB or larger storage device.
  • System firmware: UEFI, Secure Boot capable.
  • TPM: Trusted Platform Module (TPM) version 2.0.
  • Graphics card: Compatible with DirectX 12 or later with WDDM 2.0 driver.

Note- While the requirement to upgrade a Windows 10 device to Windows 11 is only that the PC be Secure Boot capable by having UEFI/BIOS enabled, you may also consider enabling or turning Secure Boot on for better security.

Sandy
Sandy
3 days ago

Match the DHCP message with the port numbers and message types used.
Place the options in the following order:
[+] DHCPOFFER
[+] DHCPACK
[#] DHCPDISCOVER
[#] DHCPREQUEST

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