IT Essentials v7.0 – A+ 220-1002 Certification Practice Exam Answers

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IT Essentials ( Version 7.00) – IT Essentials A+ 220-1002 Certification Practice Exam

1. A server administrator needs to set up a new server with disk fault tolerance technology. The administrator decides to deploy RAID 0+1 technology. What is the minimum number of disks needed to deploy the disk array setting?

  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6

Explanation: RAID 0+1 combines data striping and data mirroring. The minimum number of disks required for data striping is 2 and the minimum number of disks (or disk sets) for data mirroring is 2 as well.


2. A user has detected that one of the virtual machines in a computer is infected with a virus. Which statement about the situation is likely to be true?

  • The host operating system is not necessarily infected with a virus.
  • The host machine operating system has a bug.
  • All of the virtual machines running on the host are infected with a virus.
  • The host machine antivirus program requires an update.

Explanation: The virtual machines work separately from the host operating systems, even though they use the same system resources. The weaknesses and vulnerabilities from one virtual machine are not spread to other virtual machines or the host operating system.


3. Which fire protection system would be best for a university computer/electronics lab?

  • an overhead sprinkler system
  • an electronic ion spreader
  • a nonwater based fire extinguisher
  • fire suppressing hazmat blankets and supressors

4. Why should a technician avoid opening the casing of a power supply?

  • Power supplies must always be replaced, not repaired.
  • Hazardous levels of electricity may be present inside the power supply.
  • Power supplies are very fragile, expensive, and easy to damage.
  • Only the power supply manufacturer can open the casing of a power supply.

Explanation: Power supplies contain high voltage, and only highly-trained technicians should attempt to repair them. A power supply can still hold dangerous levels of electricity even after being disconnected from the mains power.

5. What is the first step a technician should take when preparing to work on the inside of a computer?

  • Remove the power supply.
  • Disconnect the computer from power.
  • Disconnect the computer from the network.
  • Remove external devices such as a mouse.

Explanation: Before any service inside a computer is performed, the PC should be turned off and disconnected from any source of power to reduce the risk of shock.

6. What tool can be used to find and attempt to fix file structural errors on a hard disk in Windows 7?

  • Format
  • Sfc
  • Rd
  • Chkdsk

Explanation: Chkdsk attempts to correct file structural errors. Format is used to prepare a storage deviceso that it may store data. System file checker (sfc) replaces corrupt operating system files. Remove directory (rd) is used to delete a directory from the file structure.

7. A customer asks for a solution to a printer problem that is beyond the knowledge level of the technician. What should the technician do?

  • Try to fix the problem anyway.
  • Tell the customer to call the printer manufacturer to fix the problem.
  • Gather as much information as possible and escalate the problem.
  • Ask the customer to call again when another technician can provide a solution to the problem.

Explanation: Trying to fix a problem that is beyond the knowledge level of the technician may create additional problems.

8. Which statement that is related to running 64-bit software is correct?

  • 64-bit software requires a 64-bit processor but can run on a 32-bit operating system.
  • 64-bit software requires a 64-bit processor and a 64-bit operating system.
  • 64-bit software can run on a 32-bit processor but requires a 64-bit operating system.
  • 64-bit software can run on a 32-bit processor using a 32-bit operating system but the software performance will be slower.

Explanation: 32-bit software can run on a 64-bit processor running a 64-bit operating system. 64-bit software can only run on a 64-bit processor running a 64-bit operating system.

9. Which statement is correct about installing a 32-bit operating system on a x64 architecture?

  • The OS will always make use of all the RAM available.
  • The OS will run correctly.
  • The OS can address more than 128 GB of memory.
  • This combination will provide better security.

Explanation: A 32-bit operating system can run on a x64 architecture, but it will not be able to use more than 4 GB of the system memory. A 64-bit OS includes features that provide additional security.

10. What action should a technician take before upgrading computers from Vista to Windows 7?

  • Run Vista Upgrade Analyzer.
  • Run Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor.
  • Uninstall all programs.
  • Upgrade the video card.

Explanation: When an upgrade from Vista to Windows 7 is being planned, the first step is to download and run the Windows 7 Upgrade advisor. It is not necessary in that situation to uninstall all programs or to upgrade the video card, as the requirements are the same for the two operating systems.

11. What is a possible situation when it might be necessary to boot Windows 7 from a USB device, a CD, or a DVD?

  • to disable background services
  • to delete registry keys
  • to partition the hard drive
  • to repair the system

Explanation: Disabling background services, deleting registry keys, and partitioning the hard drive do not require rebooting a PC. It might be necessary to boot a computer from a USB drive in order to repair the system in some situations.

12. What type of partition has the ability to create volumes spanning across more than one disk?

  • primary
  • active
  • extended
  • dynamic

Explanation: The primary partition contains the operating system files and is usually the first partition. The OS uses the active partition to boot the computer. The extended partition normally uses the remaining free space on a hard drive or takes the place of a primary partition. A dynamic partition is the only type of partition that allows creating volumes spanning over more than one disk.

13. What type of file system allows the use of files larger than 5 GB and is mostly used on internal hard drives?

  • FAT32
  • FAT64
  • NTFS
  • CDFS
  • exFAT

Explanation: The file system exFAT, also known as FAT64, is used to address some of the shortcoming of FAT32 and is mainly used for USB flash drives. CDFS is used for optical drives. FAT32 allows the storage of files up to 4 GB in size. NTFS allows the storage of files up to 16 TB in size.

14. Which user account should be used only to perform system management and not as the account for regular use?

  • guest
  • standard user
  • administrator
  • power user

Explanation: The administrator account is used to manage the computer and is very powerful. Best practices recommend that it be used only when it is needed to avoid accidentally performing significant changes to the system.

15. Which type of user account is created automatically during a Windows 8.1 installation?

  • Administrator
  • Guest
  • Remote Desktop user
  • Standard user

Explanation: During a Windows 8.1 installation the Administrator account is created automatically. All other accounts have to be created manually.

16. A technician is attempting to repair a Windows 7 laptop that has a missing or corrupt OS file that prevents Windows 7 from starting up. The technician reboots the laptop and accesses the WinRE via the F8 key. Which option must the technician choose in the System Recovery menu to locate and fix the missing or corrupt system files?

  • Startup Repair
  • System Restore
  • System Image Recovery
  • Windows Memory Diagnostic

Explanation: Startup Repair will scan the hard drive and identify and fix any missing or corrupt OS files. WinRE options can also be accessed by booting from the installation media or a system repair disk.

17. When would the PXE option be used when repairing a PC?

  • The display cannot be seen clearly.
  • There is no response from the mouse or keyboard.
  • The computer needs a replacement operating system.
  • A newly installed application caused the system to perform erratically.

Explanation: The Preboot eXecution Environment (PXE, but pronounced pixie) BIOS boot option is used to install an operating system from a remote network location.​

18. A user wants to extend a primary partition formatted with the NTFS file system with the unallocated space on the hard disk. What must the user do after the primary partition is extended to make it usable?

  • Convert the disk type to dynamic.
  • Ensure that the disk type is basic.
  • Format the disk with the FAT64 file system.
  • Partition the new space as a basic disk.

Explanation: A partition must be formatted with the NTFS file system in order to extend it by using the unallocated space on the disk. Once the partition has been extended, the disk type must be converted to a dynamic disk in order for the new partition to be accessible.

19. A user is viewing the Windows Disk Management utility and notices that one of the disks is marked as Foreign. What does this mean?

  • This is a basic disk that has just been converted to a dynamic disk.
  • This is a dynamic disk whose partition has been deleted.
  • This is a dynamic disk from another PC running Windows.
  • This is a disk that does not contain a valid signature.

Explanation: When a dynamic disk is removed from another Windows PC and installed onto the current PC, the disk manager will note this and mark it as Foreign within the Disk Management utility.

20. What are two file attributes in the Windows environment? (Choose two.)

  • details
  • archive
  • read-only
  • security
  • general

Explanation: The file attributes are read-only, archive, hidden, and system. Details, security, and general are tabs on the file Properties applet.

21. What are two functions of hypervisors? (Choose two.)

  • to partition the hard drive to run virtual machines
  • to protect the host from malware infection from the virtual machines
  • to manage virtual machines
  • to allocate physical system resources to virtual machines
  • to share the antivirus software across the virtual machines

Explanation: The hypervisor does not protect the hosting OS from malware. Neither does it allow sharing software across virtual machines. The hard drive of the supporting computer does not need to be partitioned to run virtual machines. The hypervisor creates and manages virtual machines on a host computer and allocates physical system resources to them.

22. Which Windows utility can be used to schedule a regular backup for preventive maintenance?

  • Windows Task Scheduler
  • Windows Task Manager
  • Disk Cleanup
  • System Restore

Explanation: Windows Task Scheduler is a tool that helps scheduling repetitive tasks, such as backups, antivirus scans, and more.

23. Which statement is correct about applying firmware updates?

  • Firmware updates are sometimes irreversible.
  • It is possible to use the Roll Back feature to reverse the change.
  • The firmware updates can be installed automatically using the Windows Service Pack utility.
  • Firmware updates should not be included as part of the preventive maintenance program.

Explanation: Firmware updates can make the hardware unusable if not performed correctly. Sometimes it is not possible to revert to the original firmware once the update has been performed because of how the changes are applied to the EPROM technology.

24. What is true about restore points?

  • Once System Restore is used to restore a system, the change is irreversible.
  • Restore points back up personal data files.
  • Restore points recover corrupted or deleted data files.
  • Restore points should always be created before making changes to a system.

Explanation: Any change from a system restore is reversible. A restore point only contains information about the system and registry settings and therefore cannot be used to backup or recover data files.

25. A user has a computer that is infected with spyware. What should be performed before removing the spyware?

  • Disable System Restore.
  • Run Windows Update.
  • Run a disk defragmentation.
  • Create a full backup.

Explanation: An infected computer that performs a system restore will save the virus or spyware along with the restore point. Therefore, system restore files must be deleted before the removal of malware.

26. A technician is troubleshooting a Windows 7 laptop that takes significantly longer than expected when performing a file search. What is the possible cause?

  • The file system is corrupt.
  • The disk type is basic.
  • The disk type is dynamic.
  • The file permissions are not set.
  • The index service is not running.

Explanation: The Windows indexing service is used to speed up file searches. A slow search may be the result of either the index service not running or not indexing the correct location.

27. A user reports that a PC is losing files, not opening some files, and is performing slowly. The technician suspects problems with the hard drive. What should be done to protect the data that is on the PC and to determine the source of the problem, without risking total drive failure?

  • Run the format command, then replace the hard drive.
  • Run chkdsk, then run format.
  • Back up all important files, then replace the hard drive.
  • Back up all important files, then run chkdsk.
  • Run chkdsk, then back up all important files.

Explanation: Backing up important files is the first step in protecting existing data. After backing up, running chkdsk will allow the technician to determine if there are bad sectors on the hard drive, without losing any data.

28. A user logs into Active Directory on a workstation and the user home directory does not redirect to a network share on a file server. A technician suspects that the group policy setting is incorrect. Which command can the technician use to verify the group policy settings?

  • rstrui
  • runas
  • tasklist
  • gpresult
  • gpupdate

Explanation: The functions of the listed commands are as follows:

runas – runs a program or tool with different permissions

rstrui – starts the System Restore utility

gpresult – displays group policy settings

gpupdate – refreshes group policy settings

tasklist – displays currently running applications

29. A company has recently deployed Active Directory and now a workstation cannot connect to a network resource. A technician takes corrective action by modifying group policy settings. Which command should the technician use to make the workstation synchronize with the new settings?

  • runas
  • rstrui
  • tasklist
  • gpresult
  • gpupdate

Explanation: The functions of the listed commands are as follows:

runas – runs a program or tool with different permissions

rstrui – starts the System Restore utility

gpresult – displays group policy settings

gpupdate – refreshes group policy settings

tasklist – displays currently running applications

30. A wired network is undergoing several changes that could leave it vulnerable to connection by unauthorized devices while the work is in progress. Which two temporary measures would enable the authorized devices to continue to have network access but prevent unauthorized devices from connecting? (Choose two.)

  • Disable DNS.
  • Disable SSID broadcast.
  • Disable DHCP.
  • Subnet the network.
  • Assign static IP addresses to the authorized devices.

Explanation: Disabling DHCP and assigning static IP addresses only to authorized devices will prevent unauthorized devices from automatically obtaining IP address information. Without the correct IP address information, the unauthorized devices will not be able to communicate over the network. Disabling DNS will result in all connected devices no longer automatically being able to communicate with network resources by name (IP addresses would have to be used.), but will not prevent unauthorized devices from connecting and enabling potentially malicious access from occurring. Subnetting the network will change the range of IP addresses used but not prevent unauthorized network access. Disabling SSID broadcasts is only applicable to wireless networks, not wired networks.

31. Refer to the exhibit. In what situation would a technician use this tab?

  • When the device will not be using the Internet.
  • When a laptop is used both at work with DHCP and at home with a static IP address.
  • When a device is behind a firewall and software is being used that needs access to a remote network.
  • When the computer will be using a VPN connection and accessing the Internet while connected through the VPN.

Explanation: The Alternate Configuration tab allows a device to have two IP configurations. One configuration might set the network card to DCHP using the General tab and then configure a static IP address for the home network using the Alternate Configuration tab.

32. On a PC that is running Windows 7 Ultimate, a user sets up a home entertainment system and creates a homegroup. The user then joins two other PCs to the workgroup, one PC running Windows 7 Starter and the other running Windows 7 Home Basic. What else must the user do in order to have the user accounts on the Windows 7 Home Basic and Windows 7 Starter PCs access the shares on the home entertainment system?

  • Users have to be added to the user accounts on the home entertainment PC.
  • Users on the PC that is running Windows Starter cannot join the homegroup.
  • Users on the PC that is running Windows Home Basic will have to be manually added to the homegroup.
  • User accounts on all three PCs have to be added to the homegroup.
  • Nothing has to be done. All users accounts on all the PCs will automatically be added to the homegroup.

Explanation: When Windows 7 PCs join a homegroup all user accounts on all the PCs are added to the homegroup. Windows 7 Starter and Windows 7 Home Basic PCs can join the homegroup but cannot be used to create a homegroup.

33. A user is reporting that a file has been shared specifically with another user on the network, but the other user opens the file and is unable to save it once edited. What is the probable cause?

  • The user shared the document with Read permissions.
  • The user forgot to share the parent folder.
  • The file has the Archive attribute enabled.
  • The file has been deleted.

Explanation: The permission setting should have been Change or Full Control. The Read permission does not allow edited files to be saved.

34. Which character of the Cloud model provides easy monitoring, controlling, reporting, and billing for both the provider and customers?

  • rapid elasticity
  • resource pooling
  • measured service
  • broad network access
  • on-demand self-service

Explanation: With measured service of the Cloud model, the resource usage can be easily monitored, controlled, reported, and billed to provide full visibility to both the Cloud service provider and customers.

35. A business organization is configuring security on the mobile devices that are used in the organization. The security policy states that business data on mobile devices should only ever be accessed by employees. Which mobile device security feature can be used to best ensure that business data is rendered completely inaccessible if the device is lost or stolen?

  • remote lock
  • remote wipe
  • passcode lock
  • sandbox

Explanation: Remote wipe is a security feature that remotely clears the device of all user data to prevent it from being maliciously compromised. Remote lock and the user passcode lock features on mobile devices can help prevent theft of private information but the data remains on the device and may be accessed if the passcode is ever broken. Sandbox describes the running of mobile apps separate from the operating system.

36. An administrative assistant tries to link a Bluetooth keyboard and mouse to a computer. The keyboard does not work, but the mouse works fine. What are two issues that could cause this situation? (Choose two.)

  • Wi-Fi is turned off.
  • The keyboard battery is dead.
  • Bluetooth is turned off.
  • The Num Lock key has been inadvertently pressed.
  • The keyboard is too far from the computer.

Explanation: Both Apple and Google release their own software development kits (SDKs) that allow developers to create apps for iOS and Android mobile devices. Developers can run the SDK and create apps on a simulator. SLA is an agreement between a service provider and customers.

37. What is needed from Apple and Google in order for individual programmers to develop apps for iOS and Android devices?

  • SLA
  • SDK
  • firmware
  • iOS or Android device

38. Which type of malware is disguised as a legitimate program?

  • adware
  • worm
  • Trojan
  • spyware

Explanation: Trojan horses disguise themselves as legitimate programs. Worms replicate themselves across a network. Adware may attach to a legitimate program, but does not disguise itself. Spyware monitors the activities of a user.

39. After complaints from users, a technician identifies that the college web server is running very slowly. A check of the server reveals that there are an unusually large number of TCP requests coming from multiple locations on the Internet. What is the source of the problem?

  • A DDoS attack is in progress.
  • The server is infected with a virus.
  • There is insufficient bandwidth to connect to the server.
  • There is a replay attack in progress.

Explanation: The source of the problem cannot be a virus because in this situation the server is passive and at the receiving end of the attack. A replay attack uses intercepted and recorded data in an attempt to gain access to an unauthorized server. This type of attack does not involve multiple computers. The issue is not the bandwidth available, but the number of TCP connections taking place. Receiving a large number of connections from multiple locations is the main symptom of a distributed denial of service attack which use botnets or zombie computers.

40. Which security threat hides the resources that it uses from antivirus programs?

  • worm
  • Trojan
  • rootkit
  • spyware

Explanation: Rootkits target a known vulnerability to gain administrator-level access. This gives the rootkit the ability to hide itself. Trojans, worms, and spyware do not gain administrator level access.

41. A user receives an email requesting verification of the password that is used to access bank files. What type of security threat is this?

  • virus
  • social engineering
  • phishing
  • malware

Explanation: Phishing is a form of attack that starts with the attacker pretending to be a legitimate entity and then tries to gather information that can be used to conduct the exploit.

42. A cleaner attempts to enter a computer lab but is denied entry by the receptionist because there is no scheduled cleaning for that day. What type of attack was just prevented?

  • Trojan
  • shoulder surfing
  • war driving
  • social engineering
  • phishing

Explanation: Social engineering is when a person attempts to manipulate another individual to gain access to information or resources to which they are not entitled.

43. Which two precautions can help prevent social engineering? (Choose two.)

  • Always ask for the ID of unknown persons.
  • Escort all visitors.
  • Keep your password securely under your keyboard.
  • Do not allow any customers into the workplace.
  • Always require a user name and password to be configured.

Explanation: Asking for IDs and escorting visitors are effective ways to prevent social engineering. Users should never keep their passwords in the work area. Eliminating customers is not always practical for business purposes.

44. A company has replaced five desktop computers in the accounting and finance department with new computers. The plan is to donate the recovered computers in a fully functional state to a not-for-profit community organization. How can the company ensure that sensitive financial data cannot be accessed once the computers are donated?

  • Data wipe the hard drives by using specialized software.
  • Perform a high-level format on the hard drives.
  • Drill holes through the hard drive platters.
  • Delete all the files and directories on the hard drives.

Explanation: Data wiping the hard drives with software that will securely erase all data will ensure that company data cannot later be accessed. This may be time consuming but for a small number of computers this is more cost-effective than the expense of degaussing. Deleting all the files and directories on the hard drives or performing a high-level format on each drive will leave the computers vulnerable to having the company data recovered by specific forensic software. Drilling holes in the hard drive platters would mean that the computers are no longer in working condition.

45. Match the task to the Windows Control Panel utility. (Not all options are used.)

46. Match the task to the Windows 10 Control Panel utility. (Not all options are used.)

Answer

47. Match the scripting language with the script file name extension. (Not all options are used.)

Answer

Linux Shell Script is .sh
Linux Shell Script uses a file extension of .sh.
Windows Batch File uses a file extension of .bat.
PowerShell uses a file extension of .ps1.
Python uses a file extension of .py.
JavaScript uses a file extension of .js.
VBScript uses a file extension of .vbs.

48. Match the file system term used in Linux to the function.

Answer

The certification objectives list the words “swap file system” as a term to be defined as it relates to the Linux file system. Swap space, swap file, or swap partition are other words for describing hard drive space that is used when the system needs more memory than there is RAM.

49. Which two data storage locations contain persistent data that can be used by computer forensics specialists? (Choose two.)

  • cache
  • RAM
  • CPU registers
  • hard disk drives
  • solid state drives

Explanation: Persistent data is data stored on an internal or external hard drive, or an optical drive. Data is preserved when the computer is turned off.

50. On which two occasions is it most likely that a technician will have to perform a clean operating system installation if a backup has not been performed? (Choose two.)

  • The existing operating system is corrupted.
  • The computer is being moved to a different network.
  • A user requires access to a new printer.
  • The existing security software requires upgrading.
  • A new replacement hard drive is installed in a computer.

51. Which three items are biometric security devices? (Choose three.)

  • smart card
  • fingerprint reader
  • password
  • key fob
  • voice recognition
  • retina scanner

Explanation: Fingerprint readers, retina scanners, and voice recognition are all biometric devices, comparing physical characteristics of the user to stored data to authenticate the user. Smart cards, key fobs, and passwords are all security measures, but do not rely on biometrics.

52. Which two guidelines are appropriate for creating strong passwords? (Choose two.)

  • Include letters, numbers, and symbols.
  • Passwords should contain symbols only.
  • Change the password once each year.
  • Use at least eight characters.
  • Use only upper case and numeric values in passwords.

Explanation: Strong passwords should be at least eight characters, and should include upper and lower case letters, numbers, and symbols. Although passwords should be changed regularly as specified in the local security policy, the amount of time between changes has no effect on the creation of strong passwords. Limiting a password to only symbols, or to only numbers and upper case letters, does not provide the strongest password possible.

53. A support desk technician is dealing with an angry customer. Which two approaches should the technician take in dealing with the customer? (Choose two.)

  • Ask socially related questions to direct the customer away from the problem.
  • Let the customer explain the problem without interrupting.
  • Immediately transfer the customer to a higher level technician.
  • Work to redirect the conversation to solving the problem.
  • Reply to the customer with the same level of anger.

Explanation: Angry customers should be allowed to explain the problem, then be redirected to discussing how the problem can be solved. Transferring the customer, replying in a rude tone, and asking unrelated questions will usually increase, not ease, the anger being expressed by the customer.

54. A technician working on a computer discovers what is suspected to be illegal activity. Which three pieces of information should be immediately documented? (Choose three.)

  • evidence of the suspected illegal activity
  • technical specifications of the computer
  • why the computer was accessed by the technician
  • location of the computer
  • details of all past users of the computer
  • duration of the suspected illegal activity

Explanation: The initial reason for accessing the computer, the suspected illegal matter or operations, and the location of the computer are immediately apparent to the technician and should be among the first details documented. Details of past computer users and the duration of the illegal activity are matters that the appropriate investigators will determine. The technical specifications of the computer may have little relevance to its illegal use.

55. What two roles or tasks are associated with level two technicians? (Choose two.)

  • prioritizing incoming calls according to their severity
  • remotely updating drivers and software on customer computers
  • escalating a trouble ticket to a higher level technician
  • gathering diagnostic information from a customer computer
  • gathering customer information to initiate a work order

Explanation: Level two technicians are primarily tasked with receiving and working on escalated work orders. Their tasks involve using remote access software to connect to the computer of a customer to perform maintenance and fixes.

56. A store in a shopping center uses a wireless network to provide internet access for three tablet computers. The authentication to the wireless router has been configured as 128-bit WEP. Recently the store employees notice that the internet connection is getting slower. The network administrator of the shopping center reviews the logs of the wireless router and notices many non-store devices are associated with the router. Which two actions can the network administrator do to improve the security of the wireless network access? (Choose two.)

  • Use the MAC address filtering feature.
  • Change WEP to WPA2 protocol.
  • Ensure that the shared key is randomly generated.
  • Use a 32-character long SSID.
  • Change to the 152-bit WEP protocol.

Explanation: The SSID is used to identify the wireless LAN and should not be considered a method for securing the WLAN. WEP encryption is weak and prone to attacks with wireless hacking tools. WEP should not be used and has been replaced by the much more secure WPA2 protocol. MAC address filtering can ensure that only authorized devices can be associated with the wireless router.

57. A user is hiking in a city park. The user wants to make a call home but cannot get a reliable cellular signal. What are two possible causes for the bad cellular coverage? (Choose two.)

  • The distance to the nearest Wi-Fi access point is too far.
  • The user is located between coverage areas of the carrier.
  • The location service is turned off.
  • The Bluetooth headset is unpaired.
  • There are not enough cell towers in the area.

Explanation: A mobile user may experience weak or dropped signal issues if there are not enough cell towers surrounding the area or the location is not covered well by the carrier.

58. A user purchases a new smartphone and is trying to use a high quality Bluetooth headset on the new device. However, the headset is not connected to the smartphone. What are three settings that the user needs to check to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose three.)

  • The battery capacity on the smartphone is above 50%.
  • The USB port on the headset is working.
  • The authentication service is turned on.
  • The Bluetooth connection is enabled on the smartphone.
  • The headset is turned on.
  • The pin code is entered correctly.

Explanation: Three factors contribute to a successful pairing between a Bluetooth capable host (the smartphone in this case) and a Bluetooth device (the headset):

  • The Bluetooth device is turned on.
  • The pin code is entered correctly.
  • The Bluetooth connection is enabled on the mobile device.

59. A third-party security firm is performing a security audit of a company and recommends the company utilize the Remote Desktop Protocol. What are two characteristics of the Microsoft Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)? (Choose two.)

  • RDP uses an encrypted session.
  • RDP connects on TCP port 3389.
  • RDP requires a Windows client.
  • RDP is a command-line network virtual terminal protocol.
  • RDP connects on TCP port 22.

Explanation: The Remote Desktop protocol (RDP) is used to remotely access a Windows OS. It is a client/server protocol.The port number for RDP is TCP port 3389 and it uses encryption.

60. A computer can successfully ping outside the local network, but cannot access any World Wide Web services. What is the most probable cause of this problem?

  • Windows Firewall blocks port 23 by default.
  • The computer network interface card is faulty.
  • The BIOS or CMOS settings are blocking web access.
  • Windows Firewall is blocking port 80.

Explanation: The World Wide Web (HTTP) protocol uses port 80; port 23 is used by Telnet. Successful pings to other devices indicate that the network interface card is working correctly. BIOS and CMOS settings control system hardware functions, not network applications such as the World Wide Web.

61. Which question would be an example of an open-ended question that a technician might ask when troubleshooting a security issue?

  • Have you scanned your computer recently for viruses?
  • Is your security software up to date?
  • Did you open any attachments from a suspicious email message?
  • What symptoms are you experiencing?

Explanation: Close-ended questions generally have a fixed or limited set of possible responses, such as “yes” or “no”. Open-ended questions imply no limited or fixed set of replies but rather generally prompt the responder to provide more meaningful feedback.

62. A technician is troubleshooting a computer security issue. The computer was compromised by an attacker as a result of the user having a weak password. Which action should the technician take as a preventive measure against this type of attack happening in the future?

  • Ensure the security policy is being enforced.
  • Verify the physical security of all offices.
  • Scan the computer with protection software.
  • Check the computer for the latest OS patches and updates.

Explanation: As part of the fifth step of the troubleshooting process, technicians should apply preventive measures whenever possible. Most company security policies include a section on password complexity and length requirements. Ensuring that this policy is being enforced can help prevent attackers from being able to compromise systems through password cracking.

63. A user notices that some of the programs that are installed before upgrading to Windows 7 no longer function properly. What can the user do to fix this problem?

  • Lower the UAC setting in the Change User Account Control settings dialog box of the User Accounts control.
  • Reinstall the programs in Compatibility Mode.
  • Update the driver for the graphics card.
  • Change the file system to FAT16.

Explanation: UAC is used to change user account settings while converting the file system to FAT16 and updating the driver for the graphics card will not resolve the issue. Compatibility mode in Windows 7 allows for the running of a program created for previous versions of the Windows environment.

64. In which folder are application files for 32-bit programs typically located on a computer that is running a 64-bit edition of Windows 7?

  • C:\Users
  • C:\Program Files (x86)
  • C:\Application Data
  • C:\Program Files

Explanation: The C:\users folder contains all the user profiles. The C:\Application Data folder contains application data related to all users. The 32 bit program files are located in the C:\Program Files(x86) folder while 64 bit program files are located in the C:\Program Files folder.

65. What is required in order to connect a Wi-Fi enabled laptop to a WPA secured wireless network?

  • a security encryption key
  • a MAC address
  • a username and password
  • an updated wireless driver

Explanation: Regardless of the levels of security configured on a WLAN, a WPA secured WLAN always requires the use of an encryption key. Without the proper key, a device cannot connect to the network.

66. What is a feature that can be used by an administrator to prevent unauthorized users from connecting to a wireless access point?

  • MAC filtering
  • WPA encryption
  • software firewall
  • proxy server

Explanation: Limiting a certain set of MAC addresses to connect to an access point is a way to ensure that only those devices are allowed to use the wireless network. A software firewall is used to prevent other users from gaining access to the protected computer. Configuring WPA encryption does not guarantee that the unauthorized user will not find the way to connect to the network. A proxy server is mostly used to filter traffic based on content.

67. A user is configuring a wireless access point and wants to prevent any neighbors from discovering the network. What action does the user need to take?

  • Configure a DNS server.
  • Disable SSID broadcast.
  • Enable WPA encryption.
  • Configure DMZ settings.

Explanation: Disabling SSID broadcast prevents the access point from announcing the name of the network. Enabling WPA encryption, configuring DMZ settings, and configuring a DNS server will accomplish different tasks, but the name of the network will still be announced.

68. Which setting must be turned on in order to share a printer in Windows 7?

  • Sharing
  • Share this Printer
  • Windows Firewall
  • File and Printer Sharing

Explanation: File and Printer Sharing must be turned on in order to share a printer in Windows 7. Share this Printer is a setting in Windows XP. Sharing is a setting in Windows Vista. Windows Firewall is not required to be turned on in order to share a printer.

69. A user is able to only access files required to perform a specific task. What type of security practice is being applied?

  • principle of least privilege
  • principle of most privilege
  • principle of privileges
  • principle of necessary privilege

Explanation: Limiting access to files or folders that are needed to perform a specific job is known as the principle of least privilege. The other options do not exist.

70. A technician is troubleshooting a workstation in a domain that has been infected with a virus. What is the first step the technician should take to clean the infected workstation?

  • Run the antivirus software.
  • Turn off system restore.
  • Disconnect the workstation from the network.
  • Update the antivirus software.

Explanation: The first step is to disconnect the infected workstation from the network. This will quarantine the infected workstation and prevent the virus from spreading throughout the network.

71. A technician is about to install and configure a wireless network at a small branch office. What is the first security measure the technician should apply immediately upon powering up the wireless router?

  • Disable the wireless network SSID broadcast.
  • Configure encryption on the wireless router and the connected wireless devices.
  • Change the default user-name and password of the wireless router.
  • Enable MAC address filtering on the wireless router.

Explanation: The first action a technician should do to secure a new wireless network is to change the default user-name and password of the wireless router. The next action would usually be to configure encryption. Then once the initial group of wireless hosts have connected to the network, MAC address filtering would be enabled and SSID broadcast disabled. This will prevent new unauthorized hosts from finding and connecting to the wireless network.

72. A company has a preventive maintenance policy that requires every computer have a new restore point created every six months. For computers using the Windows 7 operating system, how can a technician create the restore point?

  • From the CLI enter the command restore /cn.
  • Choose Start > Control Panel > Accessories > System Tools > System Restore > Create a restore point.
  • Choose Start > All Programs > Accessories > System Tools > System Restore > Next.
  • Right-click My Computer and then choose Properties > Restore > Create Restore Point.

73. What does virtual memory provide to an operating system?

  • the creation of virtual partitions on the hard drive
  • an increase in data storage
  • an increase in the speed of accessing RAM
  • a temporary storage of data until enough RAM is available to process it

Explanation: The OS uses virtual memory when a computer does not have enough RAM available to run a program. Virtual memory moves data from RAM and places it in a paging file on the hard drive. A paging file is a place where data is stored until enough RAM is available to process the data. This process is much slower than accessing the RAM directly.

74. Why would an administrator use Windows Remote Desktop and Windows Remote Assistant?

  • to provide secure remote access to resources on another network
  • to connect to a remote computer over the network to control its applications and data
  • to connect to an enterprise network across an unsecured connection and act as a local client of that network
  • to enable sharing of files and presentations with a group of users over the Internet

Explanation: Windows Remote Desktop and Remote Assistant allow an administrator to connect a local computer with a remote computer across the network and to interact with it as though it were the local computer. The administrator sees and can interact with the desktop of the remote computer. With Remote Desktop, the administrator logs onto the remote computer using an existing user account and starts a new user session. No user is required at the remoter computer to allow this access. With Remote Assistant, the purpose is for a technician to interact with a remote computer with the assistance of a remote user. The remote user must allow the remote access to the current user session and is able to observe what the technician is doing.

75. A technician needs to check the system settings on a remote computer to make sure it will be compatible with a new software update that will be sent out. The technician will use an administrator account to log in and start a user session on the remote PC. Which Windows tool will the technician use to accomplish this?

  • Windows file sharing services
  • Windows VPN remote access client
  • Windows Remote Desktop
  • Windows Update Assistant

Explanation: Windows Remote Desktop allows a technician to log in to a remote computer through an existing user account. The technician can run programs and view and manipulate files within the system of the remote computer.

76. A business traveler connects to a wireless network with open authentication. What should the traveler do to secure confidential data when connecting to the business services?

  • Connect with a VPN.
  • Change the network location profile to public.
  • Change the Windows firewall settings.
  • Manually configure an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.

Explanation: A VPN is used to form a secure tunnel across a public network. This technology allows users to communicate over an insecure network and yet keep data confidential. Changing the network location profile will modify firewall settings on a computer but not increase the confidentiality of data crossing a network. Modifying the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway will not change the confidentiality of data transmitting on a network.

77. What determines the level of support that a call center technician will provide to an individual customer?

  • A level one technician will provide a higher level of support than a level two technician.
  • Support is based on the SLA for that customer.
  • An individual call center technician chooses the level of support based on the time available to assist the customer.
  • All customers receive the same level of support by the call center.

Explanation: A call center technician must provide the level of support that is outlined in the SLA for that individual customer.

78. A corporation has expanded to include multiple remote offices around the globe. Which technology should be used to allow the remote offices to communicate and share network resources privately?

  • VPN
  • Remote Desktop
  • Remote Assistance
  • administrative share

Explanation: A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is used to connect remote sites together securely over a public network.

79. A user has been using a smartphone for several hours, but now the applications on the device have become unresponsive. What action should the user take?

  • Restore the mobile operating system from a backup.
  • Reconfigure settings.
  • Restart the device.
  • Reset the device to factory defaults.

Explanation: Restoring a device to factory defaults should only be done if either or both of the following have failed: restarting the device or turning the device off and powering it back on again.

80. A security audit for the human resources office finds that most employees leave confidential information on the screen when they are out of office for a short period of time. Which Windows control panel link should be used to make the monitor show a screen saver after a few minutes of inactivity and require that the user re-authenticate?

  • Windows Firewall
  • Device Manager
  • Network and Sharing Center
  • Personalization

Explanation: Use the Control Panel > Personalization > Screen Saver path to select a screen saver and enable the On resume, display logon screen option.​

81. Which statement describes most enterprise software licenses?

  • Developers are allowed to modify and share the source code of the software.
  • A company is allowed to use the software campus wide.
  • A user is allowed to share the software with friends.
  • A user is allowed to install the software on only one computer.

Explanation: Enterprise software licenses enable many employees of an organization to use a software application, often without the need to register the individual installations. Personal software licenses are intended for personal use of the product. Most personal software licenses allow a user to run the software on only one PC. Open source licenses allow users to modify and share the source code of the software.

82. In a Linux operating system, which component interprets user commands and forwards them to the OS?

  • shell
  • CLI
  • application program
  • kernel

Explanation: The functions of different components of a Linux system are as follows:

  • CLI – command-line interface, accepts user commands
  • shell – a program that interprets the user commands and passes them to the OS
  • kernel – manages CPU and RAM allocation to processes, system calls, and file systems
  • application program – program for various applications

83. In Linux and OS X, which CLI command can be used to display the name of the current directory?

  • pwd
  • ps
  • chmod
  • sudo

Explanation: The functions of listed CLI commands of Linux and OS X systems are as follows:

  • ps – lists the process currently running in the system
  • pwd – displays the name of the current directory
  • sudo – runs a command as another user
  • chmod – modifies file permissions

84. When installing application software on a Windows 7 workstation, the user sees an error message indicating that the installation is unsuccessful. What should the user try next?

  • Run the chkdsk /R command.
  • Restart the installation process with the services.msc utility.
  • Use the bootrec /fixmbr command from the System Recovery option.
  • Run the installation under compatibility mode.

Explanation: A possible reason that an application does not install successfully is that the application is not compatible with Windows 7. An application does not register its service if it is not installed successfully. The chkdsk command is used to check and recover disk errors. The bootrec command is used to check and recover the MBR/GPT of a system.

85. A virus has infected several computers in a small office. It is determined that the virus was spread by a USB drive that was shared by users. What can be done to prevent this problem?

  • Destroy the USB drive.
  • Set the antivirus software to scan removable media.
  • Activate Windows Firewall.
  • Change the passwords on the computers.

Explanation: To prevent the problem, the antivirus software should be configured to scan removable media. Destroying the USB drive will prevent that device from spreading the virus to other computers, but will not prevent future transmission of viruses from USB drives. Windows Firewall is a useful tool, but it does not prevent the spread of viruses.

86. Which wireless encryption method is the least secure?

  • TKIP
  • AES
  • WEP
  • WPA

Explanation: WEP is the weakest encryption method. WPA, AES, and TKIP are considered enhancements to the WEP standard and therefore are more secure.

87. A customer is explaining a problem with a computer to a technician. The technician recognizes the problem prior to the customer finishing the explanation. What should the technician do?

  • Interrupt the customer and let the customer know that the technician knows what the problem is.
  • Ask the customer to repeat the problem so that the technician can document it and verify all the facts.
  • Wait politely for the customer to finish explaining the problem.
  • Start working on the PC while listening to the customer at the same time.

Explanation: It is always important to allow the customer to finish explaining the problem at hand. You should always be attentive and actively listen to the customer without interrupting and acknowledge the customer occasionally to affirm that you are actively listening to the customer.

88. The Windows PC of a user was shutdown abruptly due to a sudden loss of power. The user then reports that the workstation has lost several files. A help desk technician suspects that part of the hard disk might be damaged. Which Windows utility can the technician use to scan the hard disk and make repairs if necessary?

  • Disk Cleanup
  • Disk Defragmenter
  • Chkdsk
  • System File Check

Explanation: The utility Chkdsk in Windows can be used to check the integrity of files and folders on a hard drive by scanning the file system. It also checks the disk surface for physical errors and tries to fix the errors.

89. A user calls the help desk and reports that the workstation, when powering up, displays error messages about an invalid system disk or invalid boot disk. When a technician comes to the office, the user mentions that the workstation was working well the day before. The technician checks the workstation and makes sure that the cable is firmly connected between the hard drive and the motherboard. What is another likely cause of the problem?

  • The boot service fails to start.
  • The MBR/GPT is corrupted.
  • Some of the operating system files may be corrupted.
  • A recently installed device driver is incompatible with the boot.

Explanation: These error messages indicate that the workstation cannot detect the hard drive as a bootable device. One possible cause is that the MBR/GPT on the hard drive is corrupted so that the workstation cannot locate a valid partition that holds the necessary codes to start booting.

90. A user calls the help desk and reports that invalid system disk or invalid boot disk error messages display on the workstation when it is powered on. When a technician comes to the office, the user mentions that the workstation was working well the day before. The technician suspects that the MBR is corrupted. Which process can the technician use to check and repair the MBR?

  • Run the sfc command.
  • Run the bootrec command.
  • Boot the workstation in Safe Mode.
  • Run the chkdsk command.

Explanation: The bootrec command can be used to repair and troubleshoot MBR issues. The chkdsk command can be used to check the integrity of files and folders by scanning the hard disk surface for physical errors. The sfc command can be used to verify and replace important Windows system files.

91. A student tells a teacher that many junk emails are appearing on a new personal laptop. What is a possible cause of the problem?

  • The laptop needs to be updated to the latest OS version.
  • The student has spent too much time surfing the web.
  • The school email server is not functioning properly.
  • The new laptop does not have antivirus or anti-spam software installed.

Explanation: A new computer should have antivirus, or anti-spam filter for the email client, or anti-spam software installed to protect from spammers.

92. A sales representative is driving to visit several customer sites in the city. The representative notices that the smartphone is draining battery power more quickly than normal. What is a possible cause of the issue?

  • The battery charger is malfunctioning.
  • The smartphone was not fully charged.
  • There are not enough Wi-Fi access points in the area.
  • The smartphone is roaming among cell towers.

Explanation: When a mobile device is roaming among cells, the battery consumption is increased because the device needs to detect and negotiate with cell towers for connections. What the user experienced here is relative to the normal use. Thus, the issues of whether the device is fully charged and the condition of the battery charger are irrelevant.

93. A user attended the wedding of a coworker and took pictures using a smartphone. The user receives phone calls from several coworkers the next day and is shocked to learn that these pictures now appear on multiple web pages. What is a possible cause for the incident?

  • The smartphone is set to automatically upload files to the coworker group folder.
  • The passcode for the smartphone has been hacked.
  • The smartphone sent the pictures to the websites by mistake.
  • The user account for the cloud service has been hacked.

Explanation: Many service carriers offer cloud-based storage for mobile devices to upload contents to the cloud service for backup purposes. However, if the user account to the cloud service is compromised, a hacker can access the contents freely.

94. A student is jogging in a city park. The student has an app on the smartphone that tracks exercise activities. The student receives a notification that a new email has been received and stops to read the email message. However, the email app is slow to respond. What is a reason for the slowness of the app to open?

  • The smartphone OS is frozen.
  • The smartphone is unable to decrypt the email message.
  • The exercise tracking app is using the GPS service.
  • The email app requires a large amount of RAM.

Explanation: The health app uses the GPS receiver to track certain exercise activities, such as jogging and running. GPS service uses a lot of device resources to find and sync with satellites. The GPS receiver locks onto the signals sent from the satellites and constantly calculates its position relative to these satellites. After the position has been determined, the GPS receiver calculates other information, such as speed, time, and distance to a programmed destination. While the GPS receiver is working, a mobile device may appear slow in response to other apps.

95. A user reports that the PC displays a warning message. The warning message indicates that the PC is infected by a virus. A technician comes with a USB drive that contains a malware detection and removal program. What should the technician do before running the program?

  • Disconnect the hard drive.
  • Change the BIOS setting to make the USB drive bootable.
  • Boot the PC in Safe Mode.
  • Make a backup of the data.

Explanation: Booting the PC in Safe Mode will prevent most drivers and applications from loading into the system. These may include drivers and programs related to malware. Safe Mode allows the antivirus software to scan all areas of the disk.

96. A user reports that a Windows 10 PC displays a warning message. The warning message indicates that the PC is infected by malware. A technician comes to the office and makes sure that the PC is disconnected from all wired and wireless networks. What should the technician do next to further investigate the incident?

  • Boot the PC in Safe Mode.
  • Save log files to removable media.
  • Disconnect the hard drive.
  • Move the malware to the Quarantined Items folder.

Explanation: When a malware protection program detects that a computer is infected, it removes or quarantines the threat. However, the computer is most likely still at risk. The first step to remediating an infected computer is to remove the computer from the network to prevent other computers from becoming infected. The next step is to follow any incident response policies that are in place. The log files should be saved to a removable media for further analysis. Restarting an infected PC may destroy the evidence of infection.

97. All Windows 10 computers in a small advertising company are configured with the System Restore service. One of the PCs was infected by malware when an employee was doing research on the internet. The IT administrator scans the system and deletes the malware from the Quarantined Items folder. What should the administrator do next to complete the remediation process?

  • Delete all restore points.
  • Disable the System Restore service.
  • Create a restore point.
  • Restore the system from a backup.

Explanation: Once the System Restore service is turned on, a PC will create regular restore points. When the PC is infected with malware, the system restore points may contain infected files. Deleting all system restore points after the system has been remediated, prevents bringing infected files into the system when the System Restore service is needed.

98. A mobile user downloads and installs an app. Once the app is installed, the Android mobile device is frozen. What is a cause for the issue?

  • The mobile OS needs to be replaced.
  • Additional apps are needed for the app to function correctly.
  • The app is not compatible with the device.
  • The app needs an update.

Explanation: A new app may not have been designed properly and may not be compatible with the OS on an Android device. Because of this, the device may appear frozen.

99. When a user tries to run a program, a missing or corrupt DLL message is displayed. What is a solution to fix the problem?

  • Use the msconfig command to adjust the startup settings for the program.
  • Run Windows Startup Repair.
  • Run sfc /scannow in Safe Mode.
  • Reinstall the correct drivers.

Explanation: A possible solution to a reported missing or corrupt DLL is to restart the computer in Safe Mode and run sfc /scannow. Windows Startup Repair is used to solve Windows startup problems. Adjusting the program startup settings by using msconfig is applicable only to programs that start correctly. Drivers relate to hardware, not to programs.

100. A programmer needs to automate processes and tasks in an operating system. Which tool would the programmer use to build a script file?

  • a text editor
  • a compiler
  • a comparison operator
  • an executable automation tool

Explanation: A script file is a simple text file used to automate processes and tasks on various operating systems. A “script” can be created by any common text editor.

101. A company has a guest wireless network available for visitors while on the company premises. A technician has noted that unauthorized users are connecting to this wireless network from outside the premises. Which action can be taken to reduce unauthorized connections to the guest wireless network while enabling visitors to still connect quickly and easily without assistance while on the company premises?

  • Enable MAC address filtering.
  • Configure WPA encryption.
  • Reduce the radio power level.
  • Disable SSID broadcast.

Explanation: Reducing the transmitted radio power to a level that gives network coverage only within the company premises will enable authorized visitors to continue to connect to the guest network connect quickly and easily without assistance, but prevent connection from outside the premises. Enabling MAC address filtering, configuring WPA encryption, and disabling SSID broadcast will prevent unauthorized access to the network. However, these actions will also make it more difficult for visitors to connect when the requirement is for quick and easy access without assistance.

102. What is an example of a web application using multifactor authentication?

  • A user logs on to an online shopping website and uses a credit card to make an order.
  • Teleworkers are required to establish a VPN connection to the company before logging into the company internal web server.
  • A user attends a large conference and tries to access Google Gmail at the conference site. The Gmail service sends a verification code to the smartphone of the user.
  • A network administrator needs to swipe a card in order to access the corporate server room.

Explanation: When multifactor authentication is implemented, two or more different authentication methods are used. Multifactor authentication is often used when accessing online services. For example, when a user wants to access a service, an authenticator application sends a code called a one-time password (OTP) to the registered phone or email address of the user. The user must supply the correct account username and password plus the OTP code to authenticate.

103. A user calls the help desk with the following situation. “I added a new PC to my LAN. I can ping other devices on my LAN but not any remote devices.” What advice should the help desk agent give to the caller?

  • Set the file permissions to read and execute.
  • If using Windows, set the idle timeout and screen lock.
  • Check the IP address configuration on the new PC, because the default gateway may be incorrect.
  • Create a virtual machine with an OS that supports the application.

104. Which statement describes the active partition?

  • It is a physical section of a hard disk. It can contain an operating system to boot the system and cannot be subdivided.
  • It is used to boot an operating system by default.
  • It is often used to organize data storage by subdividing it into as many as 23 logical sections.
  • It is a section of an extended partition on an MBR. It can be used to separate information for administrative purposes.

105. A technician has just purchased a new Windows 10 PC and wants to transfer selected files, folders, profiles, and applications from the old Windows PC. What tool or utility would be the best choice for the user?

  • Upgrade Assistant
  • User State Migration Tool
  • Windows Task Manager
  • PCmover Express

106. A user wants to copy a group of files from one Windows directory to another. What is the best Windows command to select to do the job?

  • regsrv32
  • sfc
  • DISM
  • robocopy
  • tasklist

107. A technician wants to create customized system image files that will be installed on computers in the network. Which administrative command-line tool or command can be used to address this?

  • msinfo32
  • mstsc
  • dism
  • diskpart

108. A user finds that when launching a downloaded Windows update file, Windows Update fails. What are two possible causes for this? (Choose two.)

  • The downloaded update file is corrupted.
  • A previous update that is required for the current update is not installed.
  • The Windows Firewall is turned off.
  • The virus definitions are out of date.
  • The hard disk is failing.

Explanation: In the event that the downloaded update file is corrupted or a previously required update was not installed, the Windows Update process will fail.

109. Which key or key sequence pressed during the boot process will allow a user to start a Windows PC using the last known good configuration?

  • F8
  • F12
  • Windows key
  • Alt-Z
  • F1

110. A technician notices that an application is not responding to commands and that the computer seems to respond slowly when applications are opened. What is the best administrative tool to force the release of system resources from the unresponsive application?

  • Add or Remove Programs
  • Task Manager
  • Event Viewer
  • System Restore

Explanation: Use the Task Manager Performance tab to see a visual representation of CPU and RAM utilization. This is helpful in determining if more memory is needed. Use the Applications tab to halt an application that is not responding.

111. A technician has successfully removed malware from a PC and finds that when the system is rebooted error messages are displayed about missing and corrupt system files. What utility can the technician use to replace or fix any corrupted system files?

  • Regedit
  • ASR
  • Fixboot
  • Fixmbr
  • SFC

Explanation: ASR is used to recover the operating system when it is totally corrupt and will not boot. Regedit is a registry editor whereas Fixmbr and Fixboot are command line utilities that can be used to repair corrupt boot records. SFC is used to check the integrity of any system files that may have been corrupted and repair them.

112. Which disk management tool scans the critical files of an operating system and replaces the corrupt files?

  • Optimize Drives
  • Disk Cleanup
  • Chkdsk
  • Scandisk
  • System File Checker

Explanation: System File Checker will scan critical files of an operating system and replace corrupt files. Scandisk and Chkdsk check the integrity of files and folders on a hard drive. Optimize Drives optimizes space on a hard drive. Disk Cleanup will clear space on a hard drive by looking for files that can be deleted.

113. A computer technician is notified by a user that there are no automated backups being created on an Apple computer. What is the first thing the technician should check?

  • if space is available on the local drive
  • whether Remote Disc is enabled
  • whether Time Machine is turned on
  • correct date and time configuration

Explanation: Time Machine is the OS X backup tool. To verify whether the tool is turned on, access Settings > Time Machine.

114. A user reports that an application crashed. The technician tries a few other applications on the PC and finds that none of them start normally or that they crash soon after being launched. What is a possible cause of the problem?

  • The applications need updates from the software vendors.
  • The Windows Firewall is turned off for the Private networks profile.
  • The PC is infected by a virus.
  • The hard disk is failing.

Explanation: A virus infection could cause issues such as a file name change, one or more applications crashing, or files disappearing on a PC. The failing hard disk and lack of updates from the vendors should not cause the same issues for multiple applications. The Windows Firewall being off is not a direct cause of such issues.

115. A user calls the help desk and reports that a security alert appears on the screen about a malware attempt to enter the PC. What should the technician instruct the user to do?

  • Stop wired or wireless network connection immediately.
  • Close the email client software.
  • Turn on the Windows Firewall.
  • Scan the PC to remove any malware.

Explanation: The security alert indicates that the antimalware software has detected a potential malware attack. There could be other malware attacks toward the PC. Therefore, the user should be proactive and run a thorough security scan to remove any malware that is found.

116. A user is shopping in a mall and gets a notification that a new email is received on the smartphone. The user is wondering how the email message was delivered because the data usage feature is turned off. The user notices that the smartphone is connected to the coffee shop inside the mall using Wi-Fi. What caused this connection?

  • The Wi-Fi access point in the coffee shop uses WPA2 Personal settings.
  • The smartphone is set to automatically connect to available Wi-Fi networks.
  • The service carrier of the smartphone provides Wi-Fi connections inside the mall.
  • The Wi-Fi access point in the coffee shop uses the same channel as the user smartphone uses.

Explanation: When a mobile device is set to automatically connect to unknown Wi-Fi networks, the device will search and connect to any open access Wi-Fi networks.

117. A programmer is building a script that will test a condition of either true or false. Which data type would the programmer use?

  • float
  • Bool
  • int
  • char

Explanation: The basic data types used in a script include:

  • int represents integers
  • char represents characters
  • float represents decimal numbers
  • strings represent alphanumeric characters
  • Bool represents true or false

118. A user has a computer that is infected with spyware. What should be performed after the spyware is completely cleaned?

  • Run Windows Update.
  • Run a disk defragmentation.
  • Delete system restore files.
  • Create a full backup.

Explanation: An infected computer that performs a system restore will save the virus or spyware along with the restore point. Therefore, system restore files must be deleted after the removal of malware.

119. A technician calls the help desk with the following situation. “I am trying to save a file to my RAID drive but my system cannot find it.” What advice should the help desk agent give to the caller?

  • Check the permissions for this file.
  • Set the file permissions to read and execute.
  • Check the RAID controller, because it may need to be replaced.
  • Create a virtual machine with an OS that supports the application.

120. Which statement describes a primary partition?

  • It is a section of an extended partition on an MBR. It can be used to separate information for administrative purposes.
  • It is a physical section of a hard disk. It can contain an operating system to boot the system and cannot be subdivided.
  • It is used to boot an operating system by default.
  • It is often used to organize data storage by subdividing it into as many as 23 logical sections.

121. A support technician wants to upgrade a system to Windows 10 but is unsure whether the hardware and software on the existing system are compatible. What tool or utility would be the best choice for the user?

  • Windows Easy Transfer
  • Get Windows 10 app
  • Cortana Virtual Assistant
  • PCmover Express

122. A user is deleting old files and wants to see all files in the current directory. What is the best Windows command to select to do the job?

  • dir
  • exit
  • bootrec
  • ipconfig
  • diskpart

123. A technician is troubleshooting a Windows 10 PC that has a .dll file for an application that has not been registered. Which administrative command-line tool or command can be used to address this?

  • regsvr32
  • net user
  • type
  • gpupdate

124. An IT technician in a service company has provided extensive remote IT support with product deployment for a customer. After the completion of the contract, a complaint is filed against the IT technician for not following company policy by sending unsolicited emails about services and products that are not related to the contract. What two things should the IT support technician have done differently? (Choose two.)

  • The IT technician should have added the customer to a chain letter with many recipients instead.
  • The IT technician should have used encryption to hide the purpose of the emails.
  • The IT technician should have researched the company policy about personal communication with customers on company time.
  • The IT technician should have asked the customer if the customer was interested in receiving information regarding other new services and products.
  • The IT technician should have requested permission from a supervisor to send the customer emails.

Explanation: While working with customers both briefly and over an extended period of time, it is possible to form friendly relationships. It is important to always follow company policy and never send unsolicited messages to a customer. Also do not send unsolicited mass mailings or chain letters to customers from a company email address. Any personal relationships should be kept via personal email accounts and should not reflect the IT organization of the employer.

125. A user finds that when launching a downloaded Windows update file, Windows Update fails. What are two possible causes for this? (Choose two.)

  • The downloaded update file is corrupted.
  • The virus definitions are out of date.
  • The Windows Firewall is turned off.
  • A previous update that is required for the current update is not installed.
  • The hard disk is failing.

Explanation: In the event that the downloaded update file is corrupted or a previously required update was not installed, the Windows Update process will fail.

126. A server administrator needs to remotely configure a legacy network device. The legacy network device only supports a plain-text session connection. Which remote access tool should be used?

  • SSH client
  • Windows Remote Assistance client
  • Telnet client
  • Windows Remote Desktop client

Explanation: Legacy devices may not support remote access sessions that require encryption. These devices may rely on using plain-text sessions provided by the Telnet protocol on TCP port 23.

127. Which statement describes a logical drive?

  • It takes the first 512 bytes on the disk and contains the boot loader, an executable program that allows a user to choose from multiple operating systems.
  • It is a standard for the layout of the hard drive partition table using globally unique identifiers. All partitions are primary.
  • It is a section of an extended partition on an MBR. It can be used to separate information for administrative purposes.
  • It is a physical section of a hard disk. It can contain an operating system to boot the system and cannot be subdivided.

128. A technician wants to open a remote desktop utility to connect to a remote computer on a Windows 10 PC. Which administrative command-line tool or command can be used to address this?

  • diskpart
  • mstsc
  • msinfo32
  • chkdsk

129. A technician needs to capture the company user accounts, files, operating system settings, and application settings for migration into the new Windows 10 installation. What tool or utility would be the best choice for the user?

  • User State Migration Tool
  • Upgrade Assistant
  • Windows Easy Transfer
  • WinLoad

130. Which technology allows a mobile device to automatically rotate what is being displayed on the screen as the physical orientation of the device is changed?

  • Time Machine
  • accelerometer
  • screen calibration
  • geocaching

Explanation: An accelerometer allows the device to adapt based on the position of the device. This feature can be disabled or enabled through the Settings > Display option path.

131. After questioning a user about the problems being experienced with a PC operating system, the support technician suspects that a recent service pack installation has failed. Which step of the troubleshooting process has the technician just concluded?

  • Test the theory to determine the cause of the problem.
  • Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
  • Establish a theory of probable cause.
  • Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Explanation: By suspecting that an operating system service pack has failed to install successfully, the technician has established a theory of probable cause of the problem. The next step would be to test the theory to determine the cause of the problem, followed by establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem. Documentation is the final step and would occur after the solution has been verified and the system restored to full functionality.

132. A new computer workstation has been installed in a small office. The user of the workstation can print a document using a network printer on the LAN, but cannot access the Internet. What is a possible cause of the problem?

  • The TCP/IP stack is not functional.
  • The gateway IP address is misconfigured.
  • The DHCP server IP address is misconfigured.
  • The workstation is configured with a static IP address.

Explanation: The fact that the workstation can print at a networked printer indicates that the TCP/IP stack is functional. However, that the workstation cannot communicate with external networks indicates that the most likely problem is the incorrect default gateway address. If the workstation is configured to obtain an IP address automatically, the DHCP server address does not to be configured.

133. A customer is explaining a problem with a computer to a technician. The technician recognizes the problem prior to the customer finishing the explanation. What should the technician do?

  • Interrupt the customer and let the customer know that the technician knows what the problem is.
  • Start working on the PC while listening to the customer at the same time.
  • Ask the customer to repeat the problem so that the technician can document it and verify all the facts.
  • Wait politely for the customer to finish explaining the problem.

Explanation: It is always important to allow the customer to finish explaining the problem at hand. You should always be attentive and actively listen to the customer without interrupting and acknowledge the customer occasionally to affirm that you are actively listening to the customer.

134. A technician needs to permanently destroy data on some drives before disposing of them. What is the best way to do this?

  • Shatter the drive platters with a hammer.
  • Overwrite the drives
  • Partition the hard drives.
  • Perform a full format.

Explanation: The best way to permanently destroy data is by shattering the platters of the hard drives with a hammer.

135. A user notices errors for some Windows operations and suspects that some system files might be corrupted. The user wants to scan and verify the integrity of all system files and replace corrupted files with correct versions. What is the best Windows command to select to do the job?

  • DISM
  • tasklist
  • sfc
  • shutdown
  • path

136. An analyst is running Windows 7 on the PC and is planning to migrate to Windows 8.1. The analyst wants help migrating the personal files and settings into the newer version. What tool or utility would be the best choice for the user?

  • PCmover Express
  • Windows Easy Transfer
  • Application manager
  • User State Migration Tool

137. Which statement describes a recovery partition?

  • It is a section of the disk, that is inaccessible to the user, containing an image that can be used to restore the computer to its original configuration.
  • It is often used to organize data storage by subdividing it into as many as 23 logical sections.
  • It is used to boot an operating system by default.
  • It is a physical section of a hard disk. It can contain an operating system to boot the system and cannot be subdivided.

138. An administrator calls the help desk with the following situation. “I need to make changes to a file. I can open it but I am unable to make changes.” What advice should the help desk agent give to the caller?

  • Create a virtual machine with an OS that supports the application.
  • If using Windows, set the idle timeout and screen lock.
  • Set the file permissions to read and execute.
  • Check the permissions for this file.

139. What three technologies enable virtual assistants to interact with end users via voice commands? (Choose three.)

  • VoIP
  • multi-threading
  • machine learning
  • voice recognition
  • data fault tolerance
  • artificial intelligence

Explanation: A digital assistant, or virtual assistant, relies on artificial intelligence, machine learning, and voice recognition technology to understand conversational-style voice commands.

140. How can a user prevent specific applications from accessing a Windows computer over a network?

  • Enable MAC address filtering.
  • Disable automatic IP address assignment.
  • Block specific TCP or UDP ports in Windows Firewall.
  • Change default usernames and passwords.

Explanation: Network applications have specific TCP or UDP ports that can be left open or blocked in Windows Firewall. Disabling automatic IP address assignment may result in the computer not being able to connect to the network at all. Enabling MAC address filtering is not possible in Windows and would only block specific network hosts, not applications. Changing default usernames and passwords will secure the computer from unauthorized users, not from applications.

141. What is the most commonly used method to close an application that appears to be frozen on an OS X-based computer?

  • Use Force Quit.
  • Use Task Manager.
  • Access the Status menu.
  • Access the Notification Center.

Explanation: To use Force Quit, right-click on the application icon that is not responding from the Dock and close the application.

142. In the context of a Linux operating system, which command can be used to display the syntax and parameters for a specific command?

  • cat
  • man
  • grep
  • crontab

Explanation: The functions of listed CLI commands of a Linux system are as follows:

cat – lists the contents of a file
man – displays the documentation for a specific command
crontab – manages the cron service for scheduling system tasks
grep – searches for specific strings of characters within a file or other commands outputs

143. A system administrator issues the apt-get command on a laptop that has Ubuntu installed. What is the function provided by the command?

  • to display or configure a wireless NIC
  • to install, configure, and remove packages
  • to list the applications currently running in the system
  • to allow a user to login as another user or to become a super user

Explanation: The apt-get utility (also a command) is the Ubuntu Linux package manager. It is used to install, configure, and remove packages.

144. After consulting the manufacturer manuals, a technician applies a series of recommended solutions that resolve a problem with a workstation computer. What is the next step in the troubleshooting process that the technician should perform?

  • Verify the solution and confirm full system functionality.
  • Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.
  • Test the theory of probable cause.
  • Determine the next steps to resolve the problem.

Explanation: After the recommended solutions have been applied to resolve the problem, full system functionality should be verified and preventive measures implemented if applicable. This would be followed by documenting the solution and actions. Determining the next steps to resolve the problem and testing the theory of probable cause have already been completed in this scenario.

145. When a user tries to run a program a missing or corrupt DLL message is displayed. What are two possible solutions to this problem? (Choose two.)

  • Reinstall the correct drivers.
  • Use the msconfig command to adjust the startup settings for the program.
  • Run Windows Startup Repair.
  • Run sfc/scannow in Safe Mode.
  • Register the DLL file using the regsvr32 command.

Explanation: Two possible solutions to a reported missing or corrupt are to register the DLL file using the regsvr32 command or restart the computer in Safe Mode and run sfc/scannow. Windows Startup Repair is used solve Windows startup problems. Adjusting the program startup settings by using msconfig is applicable only to programs that start correctly. Drivers relate to hardware, not to programs.

146. A support desk technician is asking a customer a series of questions about a problem connecting to the network. Which step of the troubleshooting process is the technician applying?

  • Identify the problem.
  • Establish a theory of probable cause.
  • Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
  • Test the theory to determine cause.

Explanation: Before any solutions can be proposed or tested, the problem must first be identified. This is done by gathering information from the customer by asking questions and clarifying details of the problem.

147. A computer technician has successfully returned a laptop to full operation and verified system functionality. Actions the technician performed included modifying the registry and applying patches to the operating systems. What is the next step in the troubleshooting process that the technician should do?

  • Reboot the computer.
  • Document the solution.
  • Consult manufacturer manuals and repair logs.
  • Re-attach and test all peripherals.

Explanation: The technician is ready to conclude the troubleshooting process by documenting the solution. The manufacturer manuals and repair logs would be consulted to establish a plan of action and resolve the problem before the solution has been applied. Rebooting the computer, and re-attaching and testing all peripherals, would occur during the testing and verification stage after the solution has been implemented.

148. A user reports that a computer is unable to print on an inkjet printer. The technician has determined that there is no paper in the paper bin. What is the next step in the troubleshooting process?

  • Establish a plan of action.
  • Determine the exact cause.
  • Verify system functionality.
  • Document the findings.

Explanation: What the technician just did was to determine the exact cause. What is next in the troubleshooting process is to establish a plan of action.

149. A Windows PC that was formatted with the NTFS file system displays a missing or corrupt DLL error message when a certain program is run. What is the cause of this?

  • The DLL file was not installed with the program.
  • The NTFS file system does not support DLLs.
  • The OS must be 64 bit in order to support the DLL.
  • The DLL file was not registered during installation of the program.

Explanation: Missing or corrupt DLL files can result when they are uninstalled in error when another program is being uninstalled or there is a failure in the registration process of the DLL during installation.

150. What are two possible symptoms of MBR/GPT corruption in a workstation? (Choose two.)

  • The workstation continually restarts.
  • The workstation displays an “Invalid Boot Disk” error.
  • The workstation displays a black or blue screen of death.
  • The workstation displays a “BOOTMGR is missing” error.
  • The workstation displays an “Inaccessible Boot Device” error.

Explanation: When the MBR/GPT is corrupted, the workstation cannot identify the active partition in order to load a valid operating system. The error message “Inaccessible Boot Device” indicates that the active partition is determined. However, the device driver is incompatible with the boot controller or BOOTMGR is corrupted. The reason that a workstation continually restarts is probably that the workstation is set to restart when there is a failure or a startup file has become corrupted. The most likely reason for BSOD is an incompatible device driver or a hardware failure.

151. What is a result when the DHCP servers are not operational in a network?

  • Workstations are assigned with the IP address 0.0.0.0.
  • Workstations are assigned with the IP address 127.0.0.1.
  • Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
  • Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 network.

Explanation: When workstations are configured with obtaining IP address automatically but DHCP servers are not available to respond to the requests, a workstation can assign itself an IP addresses from the 169.254.0.0/16 network.

152. A user reports that during the boot up process of a Windows 7 workstation, the message “MBR has been changed or modified” appears. What is the most probable cause of the message?

  • A virus has damaged the MBR.
  • A virus has damaged the boot sector.
  • A boot sector virus has changed the MBR.
  • A virus damaged the Windows system files.

Explanation: The change or modification of the MBR by a virus causes the system to display the message. A damaged MBR, damaged boot sector, and damaged Windows system files will cause different error messages to appear.

153. A user has completed a project and wants to erase or delete one or more files from a Windows directory. What is the best Windows command to select to do the job?

  • bootrec
  • del
  • history
  • diskpart
  • ipconfig

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PaPi
PaPi
20 days ago

A user has completed a project and wants to erase or delete one or more files from a Windows directory. What is the best Windows command to select to do the job?

  • bootrec
  • del
  • history
  • diskpart
  • ipconfig
Renny
Renny
1 month ago

A technician needs to permanently destroy data on some drives before disposing of them. What is the best way to do this?

  • Shatter the drive platters with a hammer. ****
  • Overwrite the drives
  • Partition the hard drives.
  • Perform a full format.

****Shatter the drive platters with a hammer is the real response

Renny
Renny
1 month ago

A user notices errors for some Windows operations and suspects that some system files might be corrupted. The user wants to scan and verify the integrity of all system files and replace corrupted files with correct versions. What is the best Windows command to select to do the job?

  • DISM
  • tasklist
  • sfc ****
  • shutdown
  • path
Renny
Renny
1 month ago

An analyst is running Windows 7 on the PC and is planning to migrate to Windows 8.1. The analyst wants help migrating the personal files and settings into the newer version. What tool or utility would be the best choice for the user?

  • PCmover Express
  • Windows Easy Transfer ****
  • Application manager
  • User State Migration Tool
Renny
Renny
1 month ago

Which statement describes a recovery partition?

  • It is a section of the disk, that is inaccessible to the user, containing an image that can be used to restore the computer to its original configuration. ***
  • It is often used to organize data storage by subdividing it into as many as 23 logical sections.
  • It is used to boot an operating system by default.
  • It is a physical section of a hard disk. It can contain an operating system to boot the system and cannot be subdivided.
Renny
Renny
1 month ago

An administrator calls the help desk with the following situation. “I need to make changes to a file. I can open it but I am unable to make changes.” What advice should the help desk agent give to the caller?

  • Create a virtual machine with an OS that supports the application.
  • If using Windows, set the idle timeout and screen lock.
  • Set the file permissions to read and execute.
  • Check the permissions for this file. ****
Renny
Renny
1 month ago

A technician needs to permanently destroy data on some drives before disposing of them. What is the best way to do this?

  • Shatter the drive platters with a hammer.
  • Overwrite the drives
  • Partition the hard drives.
  • Perform a full format. ****
Kisifer
Kisifer
3 months ago

ANOTHER 1
A technician needs to capture the company user accounts, files, operating system settings, and application settings for migration into the new Windows 10 installation. What tool or utility would be the best choice for the user

Kisifer
Kisifer
3 months ago

NEW QUESTION
A user notices that the PC behaves a bit differently from the organization group policies. The user believes that the group policy settings may have been applied incorrectly and wants to verify the settings. What is the best Windows command to select to do the job

Kisifer
Kisifer
3 months ago

NEW QUESTION
An administrator calls the help desk with the following situation. “An application on my computer is not responding and it is slowing down other applications. What should I do?” What advice should the help desk agent give to the caller

txnyc450
txnyc450
5 months ago

Can somone repost the question diagrams for 31, 46, 47 and 48? They’re blank.
 
 

Last edited 5 months ago by txnyc450