IT Essentials (ITE v6.0 + v7.0) Final Exam Answers 100% Full

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IT Essentials v7.0:

Final Exam Ch 1 – 9:

1. In which situation would an ESD strike potentially cause harm to the PC?

  • when replacing a mechanical hard drive with an M.2 SSD *
  • when installing an additional display in a workplace cubicle
  • when using a grounded mat and working on a computer on an ungrounded workbench
  • when installing a dual-voltage power supply

2. A person has started a new technical job. In which situation would ESD be an issue?

  • when installing a processor *
  • when using a grounded mat and working on a computer on an ungrounded workbench
  • when installing a dual-voltage power supply
  • while exchanging one laptop AC adapter with one that is not from the original equipment manufacturer

3. A technician is about to begin preventive maintenance on a company PC. In which situation would ESD be an issue?

  • when replacing a motherboard *
  • while attaching speakers to a surround sound card
  • when using a grounded mat and working on a computer on an ungrounded workbench
  • when installing a dual-voltage power supply

4. An instructor has given a student an assignment to assemble a PC. In which situation should the student be aware that ESD is an issue?

  • when installing RAM *
  • when working in a corporate environment that has carpet installed under tower PCs
  • when using a grounded mat and working on a computer on an ungrounded workbench
  • when installing a dual-voltage power supply

5. What two motherboard components control the system boot operations? (Choose two.)

  • BIOS chip *
  • UEFI chip *
  • Northbridge chip
  • Southbridge chip
  • CPU

Explanation: System boot services are provided by the motherboard BIOS and UEFI chips.

6. A technician is upgrading an ATX motherboard with another ATX motherboard. Which component might be affected by this and need to be upgraded and bought as an additional purchase?

  • BIOS
  • chipset
  • CMOS battery
  • CPU *
  • PCIe adapter

Explanation: The motherboard, CPU, and power supply must be compatible.

7. A customer has requested that a PC be built that will support eSATA. Which component should be checked to be sure that this feature is supported?

  • CPU
  • chipset *
  • hard disk
  • RAM module

Explanation: The chipset on a motherboard consists of integrated circuits that control how system hardware interacts with the CPU and motherboard. It also provides the capability and features needed, such as the maximum memory supported on the motherboard, multiple USB ports, eSATA connections, surround sound, and video.

8. Which memory module used to hold instructions for booting a PC and loading the OS, but is still used on adapters even though the memory contents cannot be changed?

  • RAM
  • ROM *
  • cache
  • main memory

Explanation: ROM stands for read-only memory.

9. What is a characteristic of DDR SDRAM?

  • It transfers data twice per clock cycle compared to once per clock cycle for SDRAM. *
  • DDR SDRAM modules have double the number of pins of SDRAM memory modules.
  • It is dynamic memory whereas SDRAM is static memory.
  • It operates at double the voltage of SDRAM memory.

Explanation: DDR SDRAM transfers data twice per clock cycle, whereas SDRAM transfers data once each clock cycle. Both DDR SDRAM and SDRAM are forms of dynamic memory. The difference in data transfer rate between DDR SDRAM and SDRAM is not determined by the number of pins, nor the operating voltage.

10. What are two safety hazards when dealing with laser printers? (Choose two.)

  • high voltage *
  • hot components *
  • heavy metals
  • proprietary power bricks
  • unwieldy card cages

Explanation: Laser printers require high voltage when initially powered on and to charge the drum in preparation for writing data to the drum. This high voltage requirement is why most laser printers are not normally connected to a UPS. A laser printer also has a fuser assembly used to apply heat and pressure to the toner to permanently attach it to the paper. The laser printer must be unplugged and the fuser assembly must be allowed to cool before working inside the printer.

11. Which component requires a technician to install screws externally through the PC case?

  • RAM
  • CPU
  • motherboard
  • power supply *

Explanation: The power supply commonly has four screws that attach from outside the case through case holes into screw holes on the power supply.

12. A technician is installing an internal HDD. To which motherboard connector will the technician connect the data cable?

  • ATX
  • PCI
  • PWR_SW
  • SATA *

Explanation: Internal hard drives are commonly SATA drives that have a data cable that extends from the drive to a motherboard SATA connector..

13. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has been asked to install a video card. Which section of the motherboard will the technician use to install the card?

  • section A
  • section B
  • section C
  • section D *

Explanation: Graphics cards, also known as video cards, are installed into a PCIe x16 expansion slot. The expansion slots on a motherboard are located near the motherboard ports.

14. When a PC is being assembled, what component is connected to the motherboard with a SATA cable?

  • the optical drive *
  • the network interface card
  • the video card
  • the power supply

Explanation: SATA cables, or serial ATA cables, are used to carry data from drives to the motherboard.

15. A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is experiencing hardware failure detected by the BIOS. What is one way this failure is indicated?

  • The computer automatically boots into Safe Mode and displays a warning on the screen.
  • The screen flashes with a red background and displays a warning message.
  • The computer emits a pattern of beeps indicating the failing device. *
  • The computer returns an error message that indicates the I/O address of the failing device.

Explanation: Beep codes are a result of POST and these vary between computer vendors based on what BIOS is installed.

16. Which three features can be configured in the BIOS settings to secure a computer? (Choose three.)

  • MAC filtering
  • drive encryption *
  • TPM *
  • file encryption
  • TKIP key
  • passwords *

Explanation: Passwords, drive encryption, and TPM are BIOS configurable security features. File encryption, TKIP key, and MAC filtering are security features not configured within BIOS.

17. What is the purpose of RAID adapters?

  • to allow older PCI technology expansion slots to be used
  • to provide enhanced audio and graphic capabilities
  • to connect multiple storage devices for redundancy or speed *
  • to connect peripheral devices to a PC to improve performance

Explanation: RAID 0 allows “striping” or writing data across two hard drives, but provides no redundancy. The other RAID versions provide redundancy.

18. When a new motherboard is being installed, between which two components must thermal compound be applied? (Choose two.)

  • CPU *
  • RAM
  • chassis
  • heat sink *
  • chipset
  • motherboard

Explanation: You must apply thermal compound between the new CPU and the heat sink/fan assembly to avoid overheating the CPU. The thermal paste helps to conduct heat from the CPU to the heat sink.

19. What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet?

  • to specify procedures for dealing with potentially hazardous materials *
  • to specify procedures in designing and building common computer systems
  • to specify procedures for the operation of sensitive components and prevention of electrostatic discharge
  • to specify procedures in the use of humidity control and prevention of moisture damage

Explanation: A Safety Data Sheet is a fact sheet that summarizes information about material identification, including hazardous ingredients that can affect personal health, fire hazards, and first-aid requirements. The SDS explains how to dispose of potentially hazardous materials in the safest manner.

20. Which negative environmental factor does cleaning the inside of a computer reduce?

  • dust *
  • EMI
  • rust
  • ESD

Explanation: Accumulated dust inside the computer can prevent the flow of air and can hinder cooling.

21. What is a recommended procedure to follow when cleaning computer components?

  • Remove the CPU before cleaning.
  • Blow compressed air on cooling fans so that they will spin when dust is being removed.
  • Use window cleaner on LCD screens.
  • Hold cans of compressed air upright while spraying. *

Explanation: When using compressed air, keep the can upright to prevent the fluid from leaking onto computer components.

22. On the production floor, a furniture plant has laptops for process monitoring and reporting. The production floor environment is around 80 degrees Fahrenheit (27 degrees Celsius). The humidity level is fairly high around 70 percent. Fans are mounted in the ceiling for air circulation. Wood dust is prevalent. Which condition is most likely to adversely affect a laptop that is used in this environment?

  • the temperature
  • the humidity
  • the air flow
  • the dust *

Explanation: Most laptops are created to be tolerant of a wide range of humidity levels and room temperatures. Dust, however, can cause overheating and failures.

23. After a technician tests a theory of probable causes, what two actions should the technician take if the testing did not identify an exact cause? (Choose two.)

  • Establish a new theory of probable causes. *
  • Randomly replace components one at a time until the problem is solved.
  • Document each test tried that did not correct the problem. *
  • Verify full system functionality.
  • Test all remaining possible causes starting with the most complex.

Explanation: If the exact cause of the problem has not been determined after you have tested all your theories, establish a new theory of probable causes and test it.

24. What would happen if a PC that contains a power supply that does not automatically adjust for input voltage is set to 230 volts and attaches to an outlet in the United States?

  • The power supply would explode.
  • The PC would not turn on. *
  • The PC would display an error code.
  • The PC would emit a series of beeps.

Explanation: In the United States, the wall outlet electrical power is standardized at 120 volts AC.

25. Which type of network spans a single building or campus and provides services and applications to people within a common organizational structure?

  • PAN
  • WAN
  • LAN *
  • MAN

Explanation: A LAN is smaller or more contained than a WAN, which can span several cities. A MAN is usually contained in one city. A PAN is a very small network of devices that are located in close proximity to one another, usually within range of a single person.

26. What are two types of wired high-speed Internet connections? (Choose two.)

  • cable *
  • satellite
  • cellular
  • DSL *
  • dial-up

Explanation: Cable and DSL Internet technologies both use physical cabling to provide an Internet connection to a residence or a small business. Although dial-up is a wired technology, it does not provide a high-speed Internet connection. Satellite and cellular connections provide a wireless Internet connection.

27. In what two situations would UDP be better than TCP as the preferred transport protocol? (Choose two.)

  • when applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated
  • when a faster delivery mechanism is needed *
  • when delivery overhead is not an issue
  • when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data *
  • when destination port numbers are dynamic

Explanation: UDP is a very simple transport layer protocol that does not guarantee delivery. Devices on both ends of the conversation are not required to keep track of the conversation. UDP is used as the transport protocol for applications that need a speedy, best-effort delivery.

28. The current IP configuration of a small company is done manually and is time-consuming. Because of increased network growth, a technician needs a simpler way for IP configuration of workstations. Which service would simplify the workstation IP configuration task?

  • APIPA
  • DHCP *
  • DNS
  • ICMP

Explanation: In networks with more than a few hosts, DHCP simplifies the addressing process. A DHCP server automatically assigns host IP addresses.

29. A company is looking for a next-generation firewall that provides VPN functionality, IDS/IPS functionality, and DoS/DDoS protection. Which device would be best suited for this task?

  • multipurpose device
  • router
  • endpoint management server
  • UTM *
  • TPM

Explanation: A universal threat management (UTM) device is a security device that can provide firewall, IDS/IPS, and proxy server functionality as well as email filtering and DoS/DDoS protection.

30. A student is helping a friend with a home computer that can no longer access the Internet. Upon investigation, the student discovers that the computer has been assigned the IP address 169.254.100.88. What could cause a computer to get such an IP address?

  • static IP addressing with incomplete information
  • interference from surrounding devices
  • reduced computer power supply output
  • unreachable DHCP server *

Explanation: When a PC does not have a static IP address or cannot pick one up from a DHCP server, Windows will automatically assign the PC an IP address using APIPA, that uses the range of addresses 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255.

31. What three values must be added to the IPv4 properties of a NIC in order for a computer to have basic connectivity with the network? (Choose three.)

  • subnet mask *
  • DHCP server address
  • domain name
  • default gateway *
  • speed and duplex
  • IP address *

Explanation: The IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address values should be added to the NIC properties in order for the computer to have basic network connectivity. This can be done either statically or dynamically with DHCP. An additional value that should be present if the computer is to be used to connect to the Internet is the DNS server value. A computer automatically attempts to locate a DHCP server if configured to do so. A DHCP server address is not used. Finally, NAT is configured on a router, not on a computer host, and speed and duplex settings are NIC hardware settings and not IPv4 properties of the NIC.

32. A device has an IPv6 address of 2001:0DB8:75a3:0214:0607:1234:aa10:ba01 /64. What is the host identifier of the device?

  • 2001:0DB8:75a3
  • 0607:1234:aa10:ba01 *
  • 2001:0DB8
  • ba01

Explanation: An IPv6 address is made up of 128 bits that are represented as eight blocks of four hexadecimal digits that are called hextets. Because each hexadecimal digit represents four bits, each hextet represents 16 bits. The /64 network prefix indicates that the first 64 bits, or first four hextets, represent the network portion of the address. Because there are 128 bits in an IPv6 address, this leaves the last 64 bits, or last four hextets, to represent the host identifier. The value for the last four hextets is 0607:1234:aa10:ba01.

33. How can a user prevent specific applications from accessing a Windows computer over a network?

  • Enable MAC address filtering.
  • Disable automatic IP address assignment.
  • Block specific TCP or UDP ports in Windows Firewall. *
  • Change default usernames and passwords.

Explanation: Network applications have specific TCP or UDP ports that can be left open or blocked in Windows Firewall. Disabling automatic IP address assignment may result in the computer not being able to connect to the network at all. Enabling MAC address filtering is not possible in Windows and would only block specific network hosts, not applications. Changing default usernames and passwords will secure the computer from unauthorized users, not from applications.

34. Place the six stages of the troubleshooting process in the correct order.

35. A technician has been asked to configure Wi-Fi calling on a corporate mobile device. In which situation would this feature be most advantageous?

  • in an emergency situation and no minutes are left on the phone
  • when sending WEA updates
  • when in an area with poor cellular coverage *
  • in a store transaction making a payment using the mobile device

Explanation: Wi-Fi calling is not supported on all mobile devices, but when enabled, it uses a Wi-Fi network to make voice calls. It is very useful in areas with poor cellular coverage.

36. Which statement is true about laptops?

  • Most of the internal components that are designed for laptops cannot be used for desktops. *
  • Laptop motherboards have standard form factors.
  • Laptops use fewer components than desktops use.
  • Laptop CPUs do not use cooling devices.

Explanation: Laptop internal components are designed with a small form factor and are proprietary. Although a laptop CPU uses less power, it needs a cooling device (heat sink and fan).

37. Which standard provides a bridge between laptop hardware and the operating system and a way for technicians to configure power management schemes to get the best performance?

  • ACPI *
  • PCIe
  • Bluetooth
  • 802.11

Explanation: The Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) standard has specific sleep states that can be assigned to a device in order to conserve power. PCIe is a motherboard interface. Bluetooth and 802.11 are wireless standards.

38. Which two laptop components are considered replaceable by the customer. (Choose two.)

  • battery *
  • integrated card reader
  • mini-PCIe module
  • RAM *
  • display

Explanation: Customer-replaceable units (CRUs) do not typically require a lot of technical skill to replace. RAM and a battery are two examples of a CRU. In contrast, a field-replaceable unit (FRU), such as a display, motherboard, keyboard, or touchpad, commonly requires a technician to install.

39. A user wants to synchronize some apps, movies, music, and ebooks between mobile devices. What are the two types of connections used to synchronize this type of data? (Choose two.)

  • cellular
  • Wi-Fi *
  • USB *
  • Bluetooth
  • NFC

Explanation: Because of the amount of data transferred during video synchronization, synchronization occurs through either a Wi-Fi connection or a wired USB connection.

40. A technician is explaining the differences between inkjet printers and laser printers to a customer. Which two comparisons should the technician make? (Choose two.)

  • Inkjet printers are less expensive as an initial purchase than laser printers. *
  • A laser printer is significantly slower than an inkjet printer.
  • Both laser and inkjet printers produce poor quality images.
  • The laser printer output is dry after printing, but an inkjet printer may still have wet ink on the paper after printing. *
  • Inkjet printers use plain paper to make economical prints, but laser printers require more expensive thermal paper.

41. A user chooses the collate option and prints two copies of a three-page document. What is the order in which the pages are printed?

  • pages 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3
  • pages 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3 *
  • pages 3, 3, 2, 2, 1, 1
  • pages 3, 2, 1, 3, 2, 1

Explanation: The collate feature enables a printer to sort multiple copies of a document with the proper page order for each copy.

42. A color laser printer is used to print documents with graphics and photographs. Users are complaining that printing takes too long. Which component of the printer should be upgraded in order to improve printing performance?

  • CPU
  • RAM *
  • hard drive
  • toner cartridges

Explanation: Because documents with graphics and photographs generate much larger print jobs, the printing process will run more efficiently if the printer memory is adequate to store the entire job before the job starts.

43. What service is available for Windows to provide software print server services to MAC OS clients?

  • Bonjour Print Server *
  • Print to XPS
  • Apple AirPort Extreme
  • Apple AirPrint

Explanation: Bonjour Printer Server from Apple comes with MAC OS X and is a free download for Windows users to be used as a software print server. Airport Extreme, a dedicated print server, and a PC with a printer attached serving as a print server are all hardware print sharing solutions.

44. Which three components are typically found in laser printer maintenance kits? (Choose three.)

  • fuser assembly *
  • primary corona
  • pickup rollers *
  • transfer rollers *
  • secondary corona
  • paper trays

Explanation: Laser printer maintenance kits typically contain components that wear and can be installed with minimal disassembly of the printer. Corona wires are internal components that would require a trained technician to replace. Paper trays are components that are not typically replaced during maintenance, but would be replaced any time if damaged.

45. A technician is installing a new printer in a cool, damp environment. After the printer cabling is done, and the software and print driver are installed, the printer test page jams. What is the most likely cause of the print failure?

  • incorrect printer driver
  • too much humidity *
  • not enough printer memory
  • loose printer cables

Explanation: Paper jams are commonly caused when the paper being used is dirty, affected by humidity, or is the wrong type of paper for the printer.

46. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation?

  • BYOD
  • virtualization *
  • maintaining communication integrity
  • online collaboration

Explanation: Virtualization technology can run several different operating systems in parallel on a single CPU.

47. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?

  • Power is always provided.
  • Less energy is consumed.
  • Server provisioning is faster.
  • Hardware does not have to be identical. *

Explanation: Disaster recovery is how a company goes about accessing applications, data, and the hardware that might be affected during a disaster. Virtualization provides hardware independence which means the disaster recovery site does not have to have the exact equipment as the equipment in production. Server provisioning is relevant when a server is built for the first time. Although data centers do have backup generators, the entire data center is designed for disaster recovery. One particular data center could never guarantee that the data center itself would never be without power.

48. Which two hypervisors are suitable to support virtual machines in a data center? (Choose two.)

  • Virtual PC
  • VMware Fusion
  • VMware ESX/ESXi *
  • Oracle VM VirtualBox
  • Microsoft Hyper-V 2012 *

Explanation: VMware ESX/ESXi and Microsoft Hyper-V 2012 are Type 1 hypervisors that have direct access to the hardware resources. Type 1 hypervisors are more efficient than hosted architectures, and enable greater scalability, performance, and robustness. They are used to support enterprise VMs in data centers. Oracle VM VirtualBox, VMware Fusion, and Microsoft Virtual PC are host based Type 2 hypervisors.

49. A web designer accesses a company Windows 10 computer remotely. The designer often needs to simultaneously open multiple applications, such as a web page editor and a graphics editor. Rather than opening them in multiple windows, the designer opens them in different virtual desktops. What technology is being used by the designer?

  • virtual reality
  • Windows Virtual Desktop *
  • cloud-based applications
  • virtual desktop infrastructure

Explanation: Windows 10 has a feature called Windows Virtual Desktop (WVD). A user can create multiple virtual desktops and navigate among them easily. This feature reduces the clutter on a desktop of Windows caused by opening multiple applications. With WVD, a user can have each application open in a separate desktop.

50. Which Cloud computing service would be best for an organization that needs to collaboratively create applications and deliver them over the web?

  • PaaS *
  • IaaS
  • SaaS
  • ITaaS

Explanation: Platform as a service (PaaS) provides a collaborative environment where multiple developers can create software and host an application through a Cloud provider.

51. Which statement describes a feature of SDRAM?

  • It requires constant power to function.
  • Its connector always has 240 pins.
  • It can process overlapping instructions in parallel. *
  • It is able to support two writes and two reads per CPU clock cycle.

Explanation: SDRAM ( Synchronous Dynamic RAM) works in synchronization with the memory bus and has higher transfer rates because it can process overlapping instructions in parallel.

52. Match the memory type to the feature. (Not all options are used.)

  • It’s connector has 288 pins and has advanced error correction features –> DDR4 SDRAM
  • It’s connector has 184 pins and is able to support two writes and two reads per CPU clock cycle. –> DDR SDRAM
  • It’s connector has 240 pins and consumes 1.5 Volts of power. –> DDR3 SDRAM
  • It’s connector has 240 pins and consumes 1.8 Volts of power. –> DDR2 SDRAM

53. A technician is troubleshooting a server that displays the error message “RAID not found” after a power outage over the weekend. What is a possible cause for this?

  • The BIOS firmware needs updating.
  • The FSB settings have changed and are wrong.
  • The external RAID controller is not receiving power. *
  • The CPU multiplier is set too high.

Explanation: The loss of the RAID controller can be caused by the external RAID controller not receiving power, incorrect BIOS settings, failure of the RAID controller or incorrect drivers for the RAID controller.

54. A customer brings in a laptop with a touch screen that is not working correctly. The touch screen either does not respond at all or provides unusual or inaccurate responses. What is a possible cause for such behavior?

  • The battery is not seated properly.
  • The DC jack is not grounded or is loose.
  • The digitizer is faulty.
  • Too many apps are open. *

Explanation: A touch screen that is unresponsive or inaccurate can be caused by dirt or grease on the screen, the screen protector, or apps consuming too many resources.

55. What are two security risks associated with sharing printers in a corporate environment? (Choose two.)

  • user authentication *
  • cached files *
  • document viewing in the print queue
  • dumpster diving
  • shoulder surfing

Explanation: Three security concerns related to shared printers include (1) cached print files could contain sensitive data; (2) user authentication is needed to control access to the printer; and (3) print jobs could be read by others, intercepted, copied, or modified. Although the names of documents can be viewed in the print queue, document viewing is not possible. Dumpster diving and shoulder surfing are security concerns whether the printer is shared or not.

56. Which change management process component is concerned with the business processes that are affected by changes?

  • assessment *
  • approval
  • implementation
  • identification

Explanation: There are several change management process components that help changes, installations, and upgrades go more easily. The assessment component identifies the business processes that are affected and the costs and resources required.

57. Match the problem to the possible solution. (Not all options are used.)

58. A computer technician is installing a RAID. If the RAID uses mirroring and striping, which RAID level is the technician using?

  • 10
  • 5
  • 1
  • 8

59. A computer technician is installing a RAID. If the RAID uses mirroring, which RAID level is the technician using?

  • 1
  • 6
  • 5
  • 3

60. A computer technician is installing a RAID. If the RAID uses striping with parity, which RAID level is the technician using?

  • 5
  • 6
  • 1
  • 4

61. A computer technician is installing a RAID. If the RAID uses striping, which RAID level is the technician using?

  • 0 *
  • 6
  • 5
  • 2

62. A computer technician is installing a RAID. If the RAID uses striping with double parity, which RAID level is the technician using?

  • 6 *
  • 1
  • 5
  • 7

63. A technician is upgrading many PCs used within the company. How should the technician dispose of an old battery?

  • Recycle following local regulations. *
  • Throw it away.
  • Take it to the garbage dump.
  • Burn it.

64. A technician is upgrading many PCs used within the company. How should the technician dispose of a broken monitor?

  • Recycle following local regulations. *
  • Bury it.
  • Take it to the garbage dump.
  • Burn it.

65. A technician is upgrading many PCs used within the company. How should the technician dispose of an old power supply?

  • Recycle following local regulations. *
  • Burn it.
  • Take it to the garbage dump.
  • Bury it.

66. A technician is upgrading many PCs used within the company. How should the technician dispose of old RAM?

  • Recycle following local regulations. *
  • Destroy it with a hammer.
  • Burn it.
  • Bury it.

67. A technician is upgrading many PCs used within the company. How should the technician dispose of an old motherboard?

  • Recycle following local regulations. *
  • Seal in a plastic bag before putting in the garbage.
  • Give it to your neighbor.
  • Destroy it with a hammer.

68. A technician is upgrading many PCs used within the company. How should the technician dispose of an old hard drive?

  • Recycle following local regulations. *
  • Seal in a cardboard box.
  • Give it to your neighbor.
  • Destroy it with a hammer.

69. After continuous morning use, a computer suddenly reboots without the intervention of the user. What are the two most likely hardware parts that could cause this problem? (Choose two.)

  • CPU *
  • power supply *
  • hard drive
  • RAID
  • BIOS
  • wireless NIC

70. A technician has been called in to investigate a problem with the computer rebooting randomly throughout the day. What two pieces of hardware could cause this problem? (Choose two.)

  • CPU *
  • power supply *
  • surge strip
  • ROM
  • wireless NIC
  • motherboard

71. For two days in a row, a user has noticed that the computer reboots several times before it eventually starts. What are two suspect components? (Choose two.)

  • CPU *
  • power supply *
  • BIOS
  • ROM
  • wireless NIC
  • motherboard

72. While a user is working on a spreadsheet, the computer reboots. What are two components that could cause this issue? (Choose two.)

  • CPU *
  • power supply *
  • ROM
  • BIOS
  • RAID
  • wireless NIC

73. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 137. What service application is the client requesting?

  • NetBIOS (NetBT) *
  • SMB/CIFS
  • HTTPS
  • SLP

74. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service application is the client requesting?

  • SSH *
  • SMB/CIFS
  • HTTPS
  • SLP

75. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 143. What service application is the client requesting?

  • IMAP *
  • SMB/CIFS
  • HTTPS
  • SLP

76. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 23. What service application is the client requesting?

  • Telnet *
  • SMB/CIFS
  • HTTPS
  • SLP

77. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 161. What service application is the client requesting?

  • SNMP *
  • SMB/CIFS
  • HTTPS
  • SLP

78. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 389. What service application is the client requesting?

  • LDAP *
  • SMB/CIFS
  • HTTPS
  • SLP

79. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 25. What service application is the client requesting?

  • SMTP *
  • SMB/CIFS
  • HTTPS
  • SLP

80. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 427. What service application is the client requesting?

  • SLP *
  • SMB/CIFS
  • SMTP
  • DNS

81. A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service application is the client requesting?

  • DNS *
  • SMTP
  • DHCP
  • TFTP

82. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0000:a0b0:0008:0001?

  • 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1
  • 2001:db80:0:1::80:1
  • 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000
  • 2001:db80:::1::80:1

83. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address fe80:09ea:0000:2200:0000:0000:0fe0:0290?

  • fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
  • fe80:9:20::b000:290
  • fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290
  • fe80:9ea0::2020::bf:e0:9290

84. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address 2002:0042:0010:c400:0000:0000:0000:0909?

  • 2002:42:10:c400::909 *
  • 200:420:110:c4b::910:0:90
  • 2002:4200::25:1090:0:99
  • 2002:42::25:1090:0:99

85. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address 2002:0420:00c4:1008:0025:0190:0000:0990?

  • 2002:420:c4:1008:25:190::990 *
  • 2002:4200::25:1090:0:99
  • 2002:42:10:c400::909
  • 2002:42::25:1090:0:99

86. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0ab8:0001:0000:1000?

  • 2001:db8::ab8:1:0:1000 *
  • 2001:db8::a0b0:8:1
  • 2001:db8:1::ab8:0:1
  • 2001:db8:0:1::8:1

87. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address fe80:0000:0000:0000:0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029?

  • fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29 *
  • fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290
  • fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
  • fe80:9ea0::2020::bf:e0:9290

88. Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address fe80:9ea0:0000:2020:0000:00bf:00e0:9290?

  • fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290 *
  • fe80:9:20::b000:290
  • fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290
  • fe80::0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029

89. What ACPI power state describes when the CPU and RAM are off and the contents of RAM have been saved to a temporary file on the hard drive?

  • S4 *
  • S1
  • S2
  • S3

90. What ACPI power state describes when the CPU and RAM are still receiving power but unused devices are powered down?

  • S1 *
  • S2
  • S3
  • S4

91. What ACPI power state describes when the CPU is off, but the RAM is refreshed?

  • S2 *
  • S1
  • S3
  • S4

92. What ACPI power state describes when the computer is off?

  • S5 *
  • S1
  • S2
  • S3

93. What ACPI power state describes when the CPU is off and the RAM is set to a slow refresh rate, often called suspend mode?

  • S3 *
  • S4
  • S2
  • S5

94. What ACPI power state describes when the computer is on and the CPU is running?

  • S0 *
  • S4
  • S3
  • S5

95. A reporter is trying to print several high resolution photographs but the color laser printer is going extremely slowly. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

  • Add more RAM to the printer. *
  • Rewind the ribbon.
  • Connect the printer using wireless.
  • Install a USB hub.
  • Update the BIOS.

96. A new printer has just been installed deep in a mine. When test pages are printed, the paper constantly jams. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

  • Move the printer to a less-humid location. *
  • Clean the printer.
  • Connect the printer using wireless.
  • Install a USB hub.
  • Update the BIOS.

97. A user complains that recently every printed document has vertical lines and streaks on the paper. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

  • Distribute the toner more evenly within the cartridge. *
  • Clean the printer.
  • Connect the printer using wireless.
  • Install a USB hub.
  • Update the BIOS.

98. A school is installing a new shared printer but the printer is not showing up on the list of available printers. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

  • Manually add the printer IP address. *
  • Reset the page counter.
  • Connect the printer using wireless.
  • Install a USB hub.
  • Update the BIOS.

99. Employees are complaining that they send print jobs to a newly installed printer but the print jobs never print. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

  • The printer is connected to the wrong port. Modify the port. *
  • Check the vibration of the crystals.
  • Connect the printer using wireless.
  • Install a USB hub.
  • Update the BIOS.

100. Users have noticed that the colors on their printed documents are different from the colors that they see on their computer screens. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

  • Calibrate the printer. *
  • Install a USB hub.
  • Reset the page counter.
  • Check the vibration of the crystals.
  • Connect the printer using wireless.

101. A technician has just completed a preventive maintenance on the department printer. Users are now complaining that the printer is no longer available. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

  • Check that the printer is plugged into a power source. *
  • Connect the printer using wireless.
  • Reset the page counter.
  • Check the vibration of the crystals.
  • Install a USB hub.

102. Employees of a small business are complaining that the printer is printing faded images. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

  • Replace the toner cartridge. *
  • Update the BIOS.
  • Reset the page counter.
  • Check the vibration of the crystals.
  • Install a USB hub.

103. A photographer is complaining about the following printer issue: The printer issues a “Document failed to print” message. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

  • A cable is loose or disconnected. *
  • The printer is no longer shared. *
  • The paper tray is flimsy.
  • The laser printer is emitting too much radiation.
  • The wrong printer type has been selected.

104. A reporter is complaining about the following printer issue: The printer is printing unknown characters. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

  • The wrong or an outdated printer driver is installed. *
  • The printer has a loose connection. *
  • The laser printer is emitting too much radiation.
  • The printer has been installed on the wrong port.
  • The paper tray is flimsy.

105. A manager is complaining about the following printer issue: The printer is printing incorrect colors. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

  • The print heads might need to be cleaned and calibrated. *
  • An incorrect cartridge could be installed. *
  • The printer is using the wrong cable.
  • The printer has been installed on the wrong port.
  • The paper tray is flimsy.

106. A technician is complaining about the following printer issue: The print appears faded on the paper. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

  • The toner cartridge is low. *
  • The paper might be incompatible with the printer. *
  • The wrong printer type has been selected.
  • The printer has been installed on the wrong port.
  • The paper tray is flimsy.

107. A librarian is complaining about the following printer issue: The printer control panel displays no image. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

  • The contrast of the screen may be set too low. *
  • The printer is not turned on. *
  • The room temperature is above normal.
  • The printer has been installed on the wrong port.
  • The paper tray is flimsy.

108. A teacher is complaining about the following printer issue: The paper is creased after printing. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

  • The paper-feed tray might not be firmly adjusted against the edges of the printer. *
  • The paper might be loaded incorrectly. *
  • Print jobs are being sent to the wrong printer.
  • The printer has been installed on the wrong port.
  • The paper tray is flimsy.

109. A receptionist is complaining about the following printer issue: My impact printer produces faded or light characters. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

  • The ribbon may be worn out. *
  • The ribbon may be damaged. *
  • The print queue is overloaded.
  • The printer has been installed on the wrong port.
  • The paper tray is flimsy.

110. A photographer is complaining about the following printer issue: The paper is not being fed into the printer. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

  • The paper may be wrinkled. *
  • The printer could be set to print to a different paper size than is currently loaded. *
  • The paper tray is flimsy.
  • The printer has been installed on the wrong port.
  • The printer service is stopped or not working properly.

111. A laptop has an NVMe drive (C:) and a mechanical hard drive (D:). When the user tries to save a spreadsheet to the D: drive, the user notices that the D: drive is not there. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

  • Use the Disk Management Control Panel. *
  • Use the Msconfig utility.
  • Boot into UEFI/BIOS and see if the drive appears.
  • Remove the drive and attach it to the SATA port used by the SSD. Reboot the computer and see if the drive is recognized.

112. A computer has two mechanical hard drives. The second drive (D:) is used for data storage. When trying to save an email attachment to the local hard drive, the user notices that the D: drive is not an option. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

  • Use File Explorer. *
  • Swap the data cables of the mechanical drive and the SSD.
  • Open a web browser and type the following: http://127.0.0.1. Verify if both drives appear in the list.
  • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.

113. A user reports that a drive is no longer there. The technician asks the user to demonstrate the problem. Within the application, the user demonstrates that the drive, that was present in the save options yesterday, is now no longer an option. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

  • Use Device Manager. *
  • Check the Startup folder.
  • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.
  • Swap the data cables of the mechanical drive and the SSD.

114. A computer has an SSD for the operating system and applications and uses another mechanical hard drive for data storage. The user reports that data can no longer be saved to the mechanical hard drive. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

  • Use File Explorer. *
  • Swap the data cables of the mechanical drive and the SSD.
  • Open a web browser and type the following: http://127.0.0.1. Verify if both drives appear in the list.
  • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.

115. A technician is working on a laptop and the GPS is not functioning. What is a probable cause for this situation?

  • A service is disabled. *
  • The GPU is overheating.
  • The screen resolution needs recalibration.
  • The screen refresh rate is too low.

116. A technician is working on a laptop and an app is not loading. What is a probable cause for this situation?

  • An app needs to be restarted. *
  • More than one app is open simultaneously.
  • The screen resolution needs recalibration.
  • The screen refresh rate is too low.

117. A technician is working on a laptop and an app is not responding. What is a probable cause for this situation?

  • An app needs to be restarted. *
  • The battery is low.
  • The GPU is overheating.
  • Wi-Fi is turned off.

118. A technician is working on a laptop and an error message about decryption appears when opening an email. What is a probable cause for this situation?

  • A digital certificate is missing. *
  • The display setting is incorrect.
  • The GPU is overheating.
  • Wi-Fi is turned off.

Final Exam Ch 10 – 14:

1. Match the Windows 10 boot sequence after the boot manager (bootmgr.exe) loads.

2. Match the correct API with its function within the Windows 10 environment.

3. Which two tools are available to transfer user data and settings from an old Windows computer to a Windows operating system on a new computer? (Choose two.)

  • Windows Easy Transfer *
  •  Windows User Manager
  •  Windows Upgrade Assistant
  •  Windows Upgrade Advisor
  •  User State Migration tool *

Explanation: When a new operating system is being installed, existing user data and settings need to be migrated from the old to the new operating system. The User State Migration Tool and the Windows Easy Transfer Tool are available to perform this task on the Windows Vista, 7, and 8 operating systems.


4. A user wants to extend a primary partition formatted with the NTFS file system with the unallocated space on the hard disk. What must the user do after the primary partition is extended to make it usable?

  • Convert the disk type to dynamic. *
  • Ensure that the disk type is basic.
  • Format the disk with the FAT64 file system.
  • Partition the new space as a basic disk.

Explanation: A partition must be formatted with the NTFS file system in order to extend it by using the unallocated space on the disk. Once the partition has been extended, the disk type must be converted to a dynamic disk in order for the new partition to be accessible.


5. Why is a full format more beneficial than a quick format when preparing for a clean OS installation?

  • A full format is the only method of installing Windows 8.1 on a PC that has an operating system currently installed.
  • A full format will delete files from the disk while analyzing the disk drive for errors. *
  • A full format will delete every partition on the hard drive.
  • A full format uses the faster FAT32 file system, whereas a quick format uses the slower NTFS file system.

Explanation: A full format removes files from a partition while scanning the disk for bad sectors. A quick format will remove files from a partition but does not scan a disk for bad sectors.

6. A technician wishes to prepare the computers in the network for disaster recovery. The network consists of a variety of desktops and laptops from different vendors. All the computers are running either a 32-bit version of Windows 10 Pro or a 64-bit version of Windows 10 Pro. How would the technician prepare the recovery media?

  • Prepare one 64-bit recovery disc for all the computers.
  • Prepare one 32-bit recovery disc for all the computers.
  • Prepare individual recovery discs for all the computers. *
  • Prepare one image restore for all the computers.

Explanation: All the PCs are from different vendors and thus have dissimilar hardware configurations. Furthermore, all the PCs have a variety of 32-bit Windows 10 and 64-bit Windows 10. Because the PCs have different versions of the OS and dissimilar hardware, you cannot use the same image on all the PCs . In order to use a single image, Sysprep must be used to strip out machine specific information like the SID, and all PCs must have the same hardware configuration and the same version of the Windows operating system.


7. A technician wishes to deploy Windows 10 Pro to multiple PCs through the remote network installation process. The technician begins by connecting the new PCs to the network and booting them up. However, the deployment fails because the target PCs are unable to communicate with the deployment server. What is the possible cause?

  • The wrong network drivers are loaded in the image file.
  • The SID has not been changed in the image file.
  • The NIC cards on the new PCs are not PXE-enabled. *
  • Sysprep was not used before building the image file.

Explanation: The NIC cards on the new PCs have to be PXE-enabled in order for them to communicate with the remote installation services on the server.


8. Which condition is required when planning to install Windows on a GPT disk?

  • The computer must be UEFI-based. *
  • Only one primary partition can contain an OS.
  • The maximum partition size cannot exceed 2 TB.
  • The maximum number of primary partitions that can co-exist is 4.

Explanation: The globally unique identifier (GUID) partition table (GPT) makes use of a number of modern techniques to expand on the older MBR partitioning scheme. GPT is commonly used in computers with UEFI firmware. For Windows 10 to be installed on, and boot, from a GPT disk UEFI must be used.

9. A technician wishes to perform a customized unattended network installation of Windows 10 on a PC. The requirements include the installation of specific applications and device drivers through the use of an answer file. What would the technician use to create the answer file?

  • Recovery partition
  • Windows SIM *
  • disk cloning
  • System Restore

Explanation: To perform a custom Windows Unattended installation, setup.exe must be run with the user options found in the answer file. Additional packages, such as applications or drivers, can be added to the answer file. The Windows System Image Manager (SIM) is used to create the setup answer file.


10. An organization has purchased a custom application for the sales staff that can only be installed on a 64-bit Windows operating system. Each member of the sales staff has a Windows 8.1 32-bit PC. What must the IT department do in order to install and run the application on the sales staff computers?

  • Downgrade the 32-bit Windows 8.1 to 64-bit Windows 7.
  • Upgrade the 32-bit Windows 8.1 to 64-bit Windows 10.
  • Perform a clean installation of 64-bit Windows 10. *
  • Download and install 64-bit hardware drivers in the current OS.

Explanation: A 32-bit OS cannot be upgraded to a 64-bit OS. In this case a clean install of Windows 64-bit would be the only option because the application requires a 64-bit Windows environment to work.


11. Match the tabs of the Windows 10 Task Manager to their functions. (Not all options are used.)

12. Match the drive status indicators in the Disk Management utility with their description. (Not all options are used.)

13. Match the wireless security settings to the description. (Not all options are used.)

14. What are two possible solutions to any Windows computer restarting continuously and never displaying the desktop? (Choose two.)

  • Upgrade the processor.
  • Press F8 to open the Advanced Options menu and choose Disable Automatic Restart on System Failure. *
  • Access the BIOS and change the boot order options.
  • Run chkdsk /F /R from the recovery console. *
  • Upgrade the video card.
  • Reset the hard drive jumpers.

Explanation: Upgrading the processor, upgrading the video card, or resetting the hard drive jumper would not fix this problem. Boot order settings cannot cause the system to reboot continuously.

15. A technician uses Microsoft Deployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) tool to create a Windows image file on one of the workstations running Windows 10. When the technician tries to clone another workstation with the image file, the workstation exhibits network connectivity issues on completion. What could cause this?

  •  The SID of the original PC is not cleared when creating the image with DISM. *
  •  The technician used the wrong tool to create the image file.
  •  The network drivers were not added to the image file.
  •  The Sysprep utility should have been turned off prior to the creation of the image file.

Explanation: The technician must use Sysprep to clean up the local specific configuration, such as the SID, otherwise the cloned systems will not work properly.


16. A user complains that user files cannot be synced with the network file server while the user is traveling out of the office. The user had access to the internet but no access to the company network server. How can this be addressed?

  • Ensure that the user only uses a single device and not multiple devices when accessing networked files.
  • Turn off the activation of Offline Files feature in the Sync Center.
  • Setup a Sync partnership with the networked file location.
  • Setup a Sync partnership between the network server, Microsoft OneDrive, and the user. *

Explanation: Because the user has access to the internet, access to the Microsoft OneDrive cloud based service is possible and thus the user can sync with Microsoft OneDrive, which in turn can sync with the company network server from across the internet.


17. A technician has connected a new internal hard drive to a Windows 10 PC. What must be done in order for Windows 10 to use the new hard drive?

  • Initialize the new hard drive. *
  • Extend the partition on an existing hard drive to the new hard drive.
  • Run chkdsk on the new hard drive.
  • Mount the new hard drive.

Explanation: The new hard drive needs to be initialized before it can be used in Windows. This will involve formatting the disk which will erase any existing data on the drive.

18. What service does PRINT$ provide?

  • It provides a network share for accessing shared printers.
  • It provides printer drivers for printer administrators. *
  • It provides a group of hidden printers that only administrative users have permissions to send print jobs to.
  • It provides an administrative Printer share accessible by all local user accounts.

Explanation: PRINT$ is a hidden share for printer drivers. It is shared by default and used to access remote shared printers or provide drivers to clients when sharing a printer.


19. A technician is troubleshooting a Windows 10 laptop infected with a virus that has damaged the master boot record. The technician has booted the laptop using the installation media and is attempting to repair the laptop from the command line interface. Which command can the technician use to repair the corrupt master boot record?

  • bootrec /fixmbr *
  • chkdsk
  • msconfig
  • sfc /scannow

Explanation: The sfc /scannow command is used to check the integristy of the system files. The msconfig command allows for viewing the startup configuration mode, while the chkdsk command is used to repair the Windows file system. The bootrec /fixmbr command is used to repair a corrupt master boot record in a Windows 10 environment.


20. A user reports that a Windows 10 PC displays the error message “Invalid Boot Disk” during the boot process. The IT technician attempts to boot the computer and finds that the error message occurs immediately after the POST. What could be the possible cause?

  • A recently installed device driver is incompatible with the boot controller.
  • BOOTMGR is corrupted.
  • The MBR/GPT is corrupted. *
  • A service failed to start during the booting process.

Explanation: The message “invalid Boot Disk” could be a symptom of a missing or damaged MBR/GPT, a missing or damaged Boot Configuration Data file, a boot sector virus, a boot order not set correctly in BIOS, media without an operating system being in a drive, a hard drive not detected or damaged, or the absence of an installed operating system.

21. Which port number is used by Virtual Network Computing (VNC) to provide remote screen sharing between devices?

  • 22
  • 23
  • 389
  • 3389
  • 5900 *

Explanation: Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a freeware product that is similar in functionality to RDP and works over port 5900.


22. Which feature is included with macOS and provides the ability for a remote user to view and change files, folders, and applications on the local computer?

  • Screen Sharing *
  • Remote Assistance
  • Virtual Network Computing
  • Remote Desktop

Explanation: In macOS, remote access functionality is provided by the Screen Sharing feature, which is based on Virtual Network Computing (VNC). VNC is a freeware product that is similar in functionality to RDP and works over port 5900.


23. Which area of concern falls under the operations and planning category in IT documentation?

  • inventory management *
  • disaster recovery policies and procedures
  • logical and physical network topology diagrams
  • end-user manual for hardware and software

Explanation: There are four broad categories of IT documentation: Policies, Operations, Projects, and User documentation. Operations is concerned with inventory management.


24. Match the individual languages with their corresponding classification.


Explanation: Scripting languages include Windows batch files, PowerShell, Linux shell script, VBScript, JavaScript, and Python. Compiled languages include C, C++, C#, and Java.

25. Which two actions should a technician take if illegal content, such as child pornography, is discovered on the hard drive of a customer computer? (Choose two.)

  • Confront the customer immediately.
  • Remove and destroy the hard drive.
  • Contact a first responder. *
  • Shut down the computer until authorities arrive.
  • Document as much information as possible. *

Explanation: If illegal content is found, begin documentation to build a chain of custody and contact a first responder immediately.


26. What are three pieces of information a level one technician should gather from a customer? (Choose three.)

  • contact information *
  • description of the problem *
  • details of any recent changes to the computer *
  • output from diagnostic software
  • output from a remote connection to the customer computer
  • current CMOS settings

Explanation: A level one technician should gather information from the customer and solve simple problems. For more advanced diagnostics, opening the computer case, running diagnostics software, and performing remote connections, the problem should be escalated to a level two technician.


27. What two actions are appropriate for a support desk technician to take when assisting customers? (Choose two.)

  • Interrupt customers if they start to solve their own problems.
  • Comfort a customer by minimizing the customer problem.
  • Let a customer finish talking before asking additional questions. *
  • If you have to put the customer on hold, ask the customer for permission. *
  • As soon as you detect customer anger, pass the angry customer to the next level.

Explanation: When dealing with customers, a technician should show professionalism in all aspects. A technician should observe the process before putting a customer on hold. First, let the customer finish speaking. Then, explain that there is need to put the customer on hold for a short period, and ask the customer for permission to do so. Tell the customer that it will be only a few minutes and explain what you will do during the period. When the customer agrees to be put on hold, thank the customer.


28. A support desk technician is dealing with an angry customer. Which two approaches should the technician take in dealing with the customer? (Choose two.)

  • Ask socially related questions to direct the customer away from the problem.
  • Work to redirect the conversation to solving the problem. *
  • Immediately transfer the customer to a higher level technician.
  • Reply to the customer with the same level of anger.
  • Let the customer explain the problem without interrupting. *

Explanation: Angry customers should be allowed to explain the problem, then be redirected to discussing how the problem can be solved. Transferring the customer, replying in a rude tone, and asking unrelated questions will usually increase, not ease, the anger being expressed by the customer.


29. What two kinds of problems should be escalated from a level one technician to a level two technician? (Choose two.)

  • problems that require rebooting the equipment
  • problems that can be solved in a short time
  • problems that are complicated and will take a long time to resolve *
  • problems that do not fit into the “down call” category
  • problems that are beyond the scope of the knowledge of the level one technician *

Explanation: A problem should be escalated to a level two technician when the problem is going to take a long time to fix, is affecting a large number of users, or requires knowledge or expertise that the level one technician does not possess.


30. An IT technician in a service company has provided extensive remote IT support with product deployment for a customer. After the completion of the contract, a complaint is filed against the IT technician for not following company policy by sending unsolicited emails about services and products that are not related to the contract. What two things should the IT support technician have done differently? (Choose two.)

  • The IT technician should have researched the company policy about personal communication with customers on company time. *
  • The IT technician should have used encryption to hide the purpose of the emails.
  • The IT technician should have added the customer to a chain letter with many recipients instead.
  • The IT technician should have asked the customer if the customer was interested in receiving information regarding other new services and products. *
  • The IT technician should have requested permission from a supervisor to send the customer emails.

Explanation: While working with customers both briefly and over an extended period of time, it is possible to form friendly relationships. It is important to always follow company policy and never send unsolicited messages to a customer. Also do not send unsolicited mass mailings or chain letters to customers from a company email address. Any personal relationships should be kept via personal email accounts and should not reflect the IT organization of the employer.


31. A third-party security firm is performing a security audit of a company and recommends the company utilize the Remote Desktop Protocol. What are two characteristics of the Microsoft Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)? (Choose two.)

  • RDP connects on TCP port 22.
  • RDP requires a Windows client.
  • RDP uses an encrypted session. *
  • RDP is a command-line network virtual terminal protocol.
  • RDP connects on TCP port 3389. *

Explanation: The Remote Desktop protocol (RDP) is used to remotely access a Windows OS. It is a client/server protocol.The port number for RDP is TCP port 3389 and it uses encryption.


32. Which subject area describes collecting and analyzing data from computer systems, networks, and storage devices, as part of an investigation of alleged illegal activity?

  • cyber law
  • computer forensics *
  • cryptography
  • disaster recovery

Explanation: The field of computer forensics involves collecting and analyzing data from computer systems, networks, wireless communications, and storage devices.


33. In a computer forensics investigation, which type of data is considered volatile data and can be lost if power is removed from the computer?

  • data stored on magnetic disks
  • data stored on an internal drive
  • data in transit between RAM and the CPU *
  • data stored on an external drive

Explanation: Volatile data is a data that is lost when power is turned off, and is located in temporary storage such as RAM, cache, CPU or in transit between them.

34. Refer to the exhibit. During the troubleshooting of software that is installed on a computer system, a level one technician requires help from a level two technician. The file shown in the exhibit must be sent to the level two technician. How should the level one technician deliver this file?

  • This file should not be shared with the level two technician.
  • Replace all passwords in the file with <password omitted> before emailing the file and then supply the passwords by secure means, if required. *
  • Send the file as it is to the level two technician.
  • Deliver the file in printed format only.

Explanation: Customer privacy should be maintained. The easiest way to preserve it is removing any occurrence of passwords from the documentation that is being sent to another technician. If a client password is required to solve the problem, it should be sent to another technician through a specific document.


35. What skill is essential for a level one technician to have?

  • the ability to gather relevant information from the customer and pass it to the level two technician so it can be entered into the work order
  • the ability to ask the customer relevant questions, and as soon as this information is included in the work order, escalate it to the level two technician
  • the ability to translate a description of a customer problem into a few succinct sentences and enter it into the work order *
  • ability to take the work order prepared by the level two technician and try to resolve the problem

Explanation: The level one technician must be able to translate the description of a customer problem into a succinct sentence or two that is entered into the work order.


36. What is used to control illegal use of software and content?

  • chain of custody
  • service level agreement
  • End User License Agreement
  • digital rights management *

Explanation: Digital rights management, or DRM, is software that is designed to prevent illegal access to digital content.


37. What determines the level of support that a call center technician will provide to an individual customer?

  • Support is based on the SLA for that customer. *
  • All customers receive the same level of support by the call center.
  • A level one technician will provide a higher level of support than a level two technician.
  • An individual call center technician chooses the level of support based on the time available to assist the customer.

Explanation: A call center technician must provide the level of support that is outlined in the SLA for that individual customer.


38. A bench technician enters the server room and finds the backup server computer case open. The hard drives containing patient medical data are all physically disconnected from the motherboard and the SATA data cables are hanging outside the case. Which step should the technician immediately take?

  • Reconnect the SATA data cables to ensure continued data backup.
  • Disconnect the SATA power cables to prevent the loss of persistent data.
  • Place the hard drives in an external enclosure and begin backing up the data before releasing the drives to first responders.
  • Locate an employee qualified to collect evidence. *
  • Dust the server computer case for fingerprints.

Explanation: When a potential crime scene is found, a chain of custody must be observed and followed. The technician should immediately locate another employee who is qualified to collect evidence. Disconnecting or reconnecting the drives or attempting to move data may adversely affect the chain of custody.


39. What is the difference between a scripting language and a compiled language?

  • Scripting languages need to be converted into executable code using a compiler, while compiled languages are interpreted as they are executed.
  • Compiled languages are executed by the operating system, while scripting languages are executed by the CPU.
  • Scripting languages are interpreted and executed line by line when a script is run, while compiled languages need to be converted into executable code. *
  • Compiled languages are executed by a command interpreter, while scripting languages are executed by the CPU.

Explanation: A scripting language is different than a compiled language because each line is interpreted and then executed when the script is run. Compiled languages need to be converted into executable code using a compiler. Another difference between the two types of languages is that compiled languages are executed by the CPU while scripting languages are executed by a command interpreter or by the operating system.


40. Which methods can be used to implement multifactor authentication?

  • VPNs and VLANs
  • IDS and IPS
  • passwords and fingerprints *
  • tokens and hashes

Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of the technologies available that support the CIA triad.


41. When responding to a call from a customer who is experiencing problems with a computer, the technician notices that a number of system files on the computer have been renamed. Which two possible solutions could the technician implement to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)

  • Use antivirus software to remove a virus. *
  • Restore the computer from a backup. *
  • Change the folder and file permissions of the user.
  • Reset the password of the user.
  • Upgrade the file encryption protocol.

Explanation: Renamed system files are usually the result of a virus on the computer. Removing the virus and restoring the computer from a backup are the only two possible solutions in this case.


42. A technician suspects that a security issue is causing problems with a computer. What two actions could be performed to test theories of probable cause when troubleshooting the PC? (Choose two.)

  • Log in as a different user. *
  • Disconnect the computer from the network. *
  • Search helpdesk repair logs for more information.
  • Discuss solutions with the customer.
  • Ask the customer open-ended questions about the problem.

Explanation: Several actions can be taken by a technician when security issues are suspected as the possible cause of a problem with a computer. Logging in as a different user or disconnecting the PC from the network to isolate the cause of the problem are two possible actions.


43. The CIO wants to secure data on company laptops by implementing file encryption. The technician determines the best method is to encrypt each hard drive using Windows BitLocker. Which two things are needed to implement this solution? (Choose two.)

  • at least two volumes *
  • USB stick
  • password management
  • TPM *
  • EFS
  • backup

Explanation: Windows provides a method to encrypt files, folders, or entire hard drives depending on need. However, certain BIOS settings and configurations are necessary to implement encryption on an entire hard disk.


44. What is an accurate description of asymmetric encryption technology?

  • Asymmetric encryption is an encryption process that compares traffic on both ends to make sure the traffic has not been altered.
  • It is an encryption process that uses identical keys on both ends to establish the VPN.
  • It is an encryption protocol that is used to encrypt data as the data is sent over the VPN.
  • It is an encryption process that uses a public and private key pair to encrypt/decrypt data. *

45. Which type of security threat can be transferred through email and is used to gain sensitive information by recording the keystrokes of the email recipient?

  • adware
  • Trojan
  • worm
  • virus *
  • grayware

Explanation: Adware does not record keystrokes. A worm self-replicates across the network. A Trojan appears to be a legitimate program while carrying malware, and grayware is a general term for software that may be malware.


46. A manager reports that unusual things are happening on a Windows computer. The technician determines that malware is the culprit. What can the technician do to remove stubborn malware?

  • Ensure that the computer is connected to the wired network so that antimalware updates can be installed.
  • Enter Safe Mode and do a system restore. *
  • Install adware protection.
  • Train the user on identifying trusted and untrusted sources.

Explanation: Booting the computer in Safe Mode prevents most drivers from loading. Additional antimalware software can then be installed to remove or quarantine malware. Sometimes the storage drive must be wiped, the operating system reinstalled, and data restored from a backup.


47. An employee that has worked at the company for many years has started a home-based business selling crafts. While leaving an office meeting, a company supervisor notices the employee buying supplies for the personal crafting business of the employee. What section of the security policy should the supervisor review when determining how to handle this situation?

  • acceptable use policies *
  • identification and authentication policies
  • incident handling policies
  • remote access policies

Explanation: The acceptable use policies section of a security policy commonly identifies network resources and usages that are acceptable to the organization. They might also state the ramifications that can occur if this security policy is violated.


48. What Windows utility should be used to configure password rules and account lockout policies on a system that is not part of a domain?

  • Event Viewer security log
  • Local Security Policy tool *
  • Active Directory Security tool
  • Computer Management

Explanation: A technician must be aware of the technologies and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization from threats and vulnerabilities. A Windows Domain Security Policy is used and applied when a user logs in to a computer that is on a corporate network. A Windows Local Security Policy is used for stand-alone computers to enforce security settings.


49. A customer brings in a computer that is asking for a password as soon as it powers on, even before the operating system boots. Which type of password is enabled?

  • BIOS *
  • login
  • multifactor
  • network
  • synchronous

Explanation: A BIOS password is configured by entering the BIOS Setup program. If unknown, it can be removed by placing a jumper over two motherboard pins. Some motherboards support BIOS password removal by removing the CMOS battery, but if this is done, all BIOS settings will be reset to the default values.


50. When attempting to improve system performance for Linux computers with a limited amount of memory, why is increasing the size of the swap file system not considered the best solution?

  • A swap file system only supports the ex2 file system.
  • A swap file system does not have a specific file system.
  • A swap file system cannot be mounted on an MBR partition.
  • A swap file system uses hard disk space to store inactive RAM content. *

Explanation: The swap file system is used by Linux when it runs out of physical memory. When needed, the kernel moves inactive RAM content to the swap partition on the hard disk. Storing and retrieving content in the swap partition is much slower than RAM is, and therefore using the swap partition should not be considered the best solution to improving system performance.


51. What are three features of GPS on mobile devices? (Choose three.)

  • phone number lookup
  • navigation *
  • specialized search results *
  • device tracking *
  • remote wipe
  • gas mileage calculations

Explanation: Navigation, specialized search results, and device tracking are features of GPS on mobile devices. Remote wipe may be a feature on some mobile devices, but is not related to GPS. Phone number lookup and gas mileage calculations are not GPS features.


52. Which three components are used to assign file and directory permissions in Linux systems? (Choose three.)

  • root
  • group *
  • owner *
  • all users *
  • super group
  • admin group

Explanation: In Linux, file and directory permissions are assigned as follows:

  • Owner – the owner user of the file or directory
  • Group – the user group that has been assigned to the file or directory
  • All users – all other users on the system

53. A user downloads a widget onto his Android phone but is puzzled to see that when the widget is touched an app is launched. What is a possible cause?

  • The user has downloaded a virus.
  • The widget is corrupt.
  • The security settings of the Android OS have been compromised.
  • The widget is associated with the app and this is the normal behavior. *

Explanation: Widgets are programs that when installed associate with the application they were built for. This will cause the application to launch when the widget icon is touched on the touchscreen of the Android device.


54. What is the purpose of running mobile device apps in a sandbox?

  • to enable the phone to run multiple operating systems
  • to prevent malicious programs from infecting the device *
  • to enable separate app icons to be displayed on the home screen
  • to bypass phone carrier restrictions that prevent access to unauthorized apps

Explanation: Mobile device apps are run in a sandbox that isolates them from other resources. Bypassing the phone carrier from preventing access to unauthorized apps is jailbreaking or rooting the device.


Refer to the exhibit. What is true of this mobile device screen?

  • Tapping and holding the arrow at the bottom left will display the Home screen.
  • Text messages, news, photos and other content can be displayed in the different tiles. *
  • Icons and buttons are used to represent the different apps on the phone.
  • Unpinning an app from this view will uninstall the app from the phone.
  • Tile sizes depend on the size of the app.

Explanation: The Windows Phone interface uses tiles to represent apps. Tiles are rectangular areas of a screen that identify the app and may also contain active content such as text messages, news feeds, and photos.


55. Which built-in tool is available on a Mac OS X machine to perform disk backups?

  • Disk Utility
  • Deja Dup
  • Finder
  • Time Machine  *

Explanation: Time Machine is an automatic backup utility in the Mac OS. The Mac Disk Utility allows an administrator to configure disk backups. The Deja Dup tool is a tool built into the Linux OS for backing up data. Finder is similar to the Windows File Explorer tool and is used to navigate the Mac OS file system.


56. A user calls the help desk reporting that a laptop with Linux freezes on startup and displays kernel panic. What could cause this problem?

  • A driver has become corrupted. *
  • GRUB or LILO has been deleted.
  • GRUB or LILO has been corrupted.
  • An application is using a resource that has become unavailable.

Explanation: A corrupted driver or failing hardware could cause kernel panic for Linux or Mac OS. The laptop will not be able to boot successfully. Either GRUB or LILO corruption or GRUB or LILO deletion would cause the stop screen to display a “Missing GRUB” or “Missing LILO” message. A resource unavailable to an application will cause the application to stop responding, but not prevent a laptop from starting up.


57. A user calls the help desk to report that a mobile device exhibits very slow performance. What could cause this problem?

  • The touchscreen is not calibrated.
  • An app is not compatible with the device.
  • The operating system is corrupt.
  • A power-intensive app is running in the background. *

Explanation: A power-intensive app that is running in the background could consume most of the CPU cycles and thus the device would exhibit very slow performance for other apps. If an app is not compatible with the device, the device operating system would freeze. If the operating system has encountered an error, the device will fail to respond.


58. Which term describes a partition that is used to store and boot an operating system by default?

  • logical drive
  • active partition *
  • basic disk
  • extended partition

59. Which term describes a file system that supports a partition size up to 16 exabytes?

  • extended partition
  • NTFS *
  • logical drive
  • active partition

60. Which term describes a file system for USB flash drives that supports files larger than 4 GB?

  • extended partition
  • exFAT *
  • logical drive
  • active partition

61. Which term describes a partition that supports up to 23 logical drives?

  • logical drive
  • extended partition *
  • basic disk
  • active partition

62. Which term describes a file system for optical disk media?

  • extended partition
  • CDFS *
  • logical drive
  • active partition

63. Which term describes a type of partition that would only exist on a hard disk that has an MBR?

  • extended partition
  • logical drive *
  • basic disk
  • active partition

64. Which term describes a type of storage device that supports a partition to be extended into adjacent unallocated space as long as it is contiguous?

  • NTFS
  • basic disk *
  • FAT32
  • formatting

65. Which term describes a general name for physical areas on a hard drive?

  • NTFS
  • partition *
  • FAT32
  • formatting

66. Which term describes a partition scheme that takes a portion of disk space of 512 bytes long and that contains the boot loader?

  • NTFS
  • MBR *
  • FAT32
  • formatting

67. Which term describes a type of storage device that supports a volume that can span across more than one disk?

  • NTFS
  • dynamic disk *
  • FAT32
  • formatting

68. A technician is booting a laptop that has Windows 10 installed with 2 GB RAM. The boot process is currently working on the following step: NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

  • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen. *
  • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL.
  • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
  • Winload uses the path specified in BOOTMGR to find the boot partition.

69. A user is booting a tablet that has Windows 10 installed. The boot process is currently working on the following step: WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

  • There are no more steps, the boot process is complete. *
  • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL.
  • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
  • Winload uses the path specified in BOOTMGR to find the boot partition.

70. A manager is booting a tablet that has Windows 8 installed. The boot process is currently working on the following step: POST. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

  • BIOS locates and reads the configuration settings that are stored in the CMOS memory. *
  • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
  • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.
  • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL.

71. An accountant is booting a PC that has Windows 8 installed. The boot process is currently working on the following step: BIOS locates and reads the configuration settings that are stored in the CMOS memory. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

  • The BIOS boots the computer using the first drive that contains a valid boot sector. *
  • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
  • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.
  • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL.

72. A network analyst is booting a PC that has Windows 7 installed with 2 GB RAM. The boot process is currently working on the following step: The code in the boot sector is executed and the control of the boot process is given to Windows Boot Manager. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

  • Winload uses the path specified in BOOTMGR to find the boot partition. *
  • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
  • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.
  • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL.

73. An analyst is booting a desktop that has Windows 7 installed with 4 GB RAM. The boot process is currently working on the following step: Winload uses the path specified in BOOTMGR to find the boot partition. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

  • WinLoad loads two files that make up the core of Windows: NTOSKRNL.EXE and HAL.DLL. *
  • There are no more steps, the boot process is complete.
  • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen
  • NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE.

74. A gamer is booting a desktop that has Windows 7 installed on dynamic drives. The boot process is currently working on the following step: WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

  • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process. *
  • There are no more steps, the boot process is complete.
  • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen
  • NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE.

75. A technician is booting a laptop that has Windows 10 installed with 2 GB RAM. The boot process is currently working on the following step: The Windows kernel takes over the boot process. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

  • NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE. *
  • There are no more steps, the boot process is complete.
  • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen
  • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.

76. A user is booting a laptop that has Windows 10 installed. The boot process is currently working on the following step: WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

  • There are no more steps, the boot process is complete. *
  • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen
  • NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE.
  • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.

77. A manager is booting a tablet that has Windows 8 installed. The boot process is currently working on the following step: The Windows kernel takes over the boot process. What is the next step that will happen in the boot process?

  • NTOSKRNL.EXE starts the login file called WINLOGON.EXE. *
  • The Windows kernel takes over the boot process.
  • WinLoad reads the registry files, chooses a hardware profile, and loads the device drivers.
  • WINLOGON.EXE displays the Windows Welcome screen

78. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker was using a specific technique that affected the TCP three-way handshake. What is the type of network attack?

  • SYN flood *
  • DDoS
  • DNS poisoning
  • zero-day

79. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker is using a technique that compares hashed passwords to potential hashes the hacker has. What is the type of network attack?

  • rainbow table *
  • DDoS
  • DNS poisoning
  • SYN flood

80. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the DNS server was sent with an enormous amount of false requests, thus overwhelming the server. What is the type of network attack?

  • DoS *
  • DNS poisoning
  • SYN flood
  • zero-day

81. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker is using a vulnerability that is known to the software vendor, but not patched yet. What is the type of network attack?

  • zero-day *
  • DDoS
  • DNS poisoning
  • SYN flood

82. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that zombies were used to attack the firewall. What is the type of network attack?

  • DDoS *
  • DNS poisoning
  • SYN flood
  • zero-day

83. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that zombies were used to attack the firewall. What is the type of network attack?

  • DDoS *
  • zero-day
  • dictionary
  • SYN flood

84. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker is using a table of words that potentially could be used as passwords. What is the type of network attack?

  • dictionary *
  • SYN flood
  • zero-day
  • DNS poisoning

85. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker injected false records on the server that translates IP addresses to domain names. What is the type of network attack?

  • DNS poisoning *
  • zero-day
  • dictionary
  • SYN flood

86. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker is using a technique that compares hashed passwords to potential hashes the hacker has. What is the type of network attack?

  • rainbow table *
  • SYN flood
  • zero-day
  • DNS poisoning

87. Users in a company have complained about network performance. After investigation, the IT staff has determined that the attacker was using a specific technique that affected the TCP three-way handshake. What is the type of network attack?

  • SYN flood *
  • zero-day
  • dictionary
  • DNS poisoning

88. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for a company that wants a device to monitor incoming and outgoing traffic and stop any malicious activity. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

  • Buy an IPS. *
  • Implement a RAID.
  • Provide security awareness training.
  • Use SSL.

89. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for a machine where the antimalware software cannot remove all of the malware. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

  • Use Windows Safe Mode. *
  • Implement a RAID.
  • Provide security awareness training.
  • Use SSL.

90. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for a machine where the antimalware software cannot remove all of the malware. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

  • Use Windows Safe Mode. *
  • Implement a RAID.
  • Provide security awareness training.
  • Use encryption.

91. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for preventing tailgating. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

  • Use a mantrap. *
  • Implement a RAID.
  • Provide security awareness training.
  • Use encryption.

92. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for drive redundancy. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

  • Implement a RAID. *
  • Provide security awareness training.
  • Disable ports.
  • Implement dual authentication.

93. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for drive redundancy. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

  • Implement a RAID. *
  • Buy an ASA.
  • Use a VPN.
  • Implement dual authentication.

94. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for phishing. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

  • Provide security awareness training. *
  • Buy an ASA.
  • Use a VPN.
  • Employ ping sweeps.

95. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for protecting a computer used to log in at a dental clinic from someone using a bootable disk containing hacking tools. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

  • Disable ports. *
  • Buy an ASA.
  • Use a VPN.
  • Employ ping sweeps.

96. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for protecting a computer used to log in at a dental clinic from someone using a bootable disk containing hacking tools. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

  • Disable ports. *
  • Buy an ASA.
  • Use a VPN.
  • Run vulnerability scanners.

97. A PC technician has been asked by a supervisor to recommend a security solution for a manager traveling who needs access to internal corporate resources. Which security technique should the technician recommend?

  • Use a VPN. *
  • Buy an ASA.
  • Disable ports.
  • Run vulnerability scanners.

98. Why would a gamer need to use the move command?

  • to relocate a file from one Windows directory to another one *
  • to prepare a hard drive to accept Windows files
  • to manage a PCs drives, disks, partitions, volumes, and virtual drives
  • to copy files, directories, and subdirectories from one location to another

99. Why would a gamer need to use the copy command?

  • to move that file to a different Windows directory while also leaving the file in the current location *
  • to prepare a hard drive to accept Windows files
  • to manage a PCs drives, disks, partitions, volumes, and virtual drives
  • to copy files, directories, and subdirectories from one location to another

100. Why would a university student need to use the robocopy command?

  • to copy a group of files from one Windows directory to another *
  • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
  • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
  • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system

101. Why would a university student need to use the xcopy command?

  • to copy files, directories, and subdirectories from one location to another *
  • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
  • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
  • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system

102. Why would a technical support representative need to use the format command?

  • to prepare a hard drive to accept Windows files *
  • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
  • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
  • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system

103. Why would a technical support representative need to use the bootrec command?

  • to help to repair the MBR that is suspected of having issues *
  • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
  • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
  • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system

104. Why would a technical support representative need to use the ipconfig command?

  • to display the IPv6 address of the PC *
  • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
  • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
  • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system

105. Why would a user need to use the netstat command?

  • to verify activity on the PC by displaying all active TCP connections on the device *
  • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
  • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
  • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system

106. Why would a user need to use the nslookup command?

  • to query the Domain Name Sysytem (DNS) to get domain names and mapping information *
  • to scan and verify the integrity of all protected system files and replace incorrect versions with correct versions
  • to shutdown several remote computers one at a time
  • to repair, prepare, and fix Windows images and the recovery image within an installation of the operating system

107. Why would a manager need to use the ping command?

  • to quickly verify connectivity by sending echo-request messages to the destination and receiving a series of echo-reply messages from that destination *
  • to change from the current working folder to another folder
  • to create a new Windows directory
  • to remove an empty directory

IT Essentials v6.0:

2. Which type of interface should a customer choose if connecting a single cable from a Microsoft Windows computer to output both audio and video to a high definition television?

  • DVI
  • HDMI*
  • PS/2
  • DB-15

3. Which type of input device can identify users based on their voice?

  • digitizer
  • KVM
  • switchbiometric identification device*
  • scanner

4. What type of external storage should be used by a technician to back up over 2 TB of music and video data files?

  • CompactFlash card
  • external flash drive
  • external hard drive*
  • Secure Digital card

5. What type of device provides power to a computer and allows it to be safely shut down in the event of a power loss?

  • surge suppressor
  • uninterruptible power supply*
  • standby power supply
  • power inverter

6. Which measure can help control RFI effects on wireless networks?

  • Ensure the humidity and temperature levels are set as low as possible.
  • Ensure the number of wireless NICs exceeds the number of wireless phones.
  • Ensure the wireless network is on a different frequency than the offending source.*
  • Ensure each wireless NIC is configured to operate at different frequencies from all other wireless NICs.

8. What can be tested with a digital multimeter?

  • wireless signal strength and access point positioning
  • basic functionality of computer ports
  • copper cable location
  • quality of electricity in computer components*

9. When should a technician avoid wearing an antistatic wrist strap?

  • when installing RAM
  • when replacing a power supply unit*
  • when installing a hard drive
  • when opening a computer case

10. Which solution should be used to clean a CPU and a heat sink?

  • soap and water
  • rubbing alcohol
  • a diluted ammonia solution
  • isopropyl alcohol

11. Which two types of expansion slots would be used by a wireless NIC in a computer today? (Choose two.)

  • PCIe*
  • AGP
  • PCI*
  • DIMM
  • ISA

15. What is the most important reason for a company to ensure that computer preventive maintenance is done?

  • Preventive maintenance provides an opportunity for junior technicians to obtain more experience in a non-threatening or problem environment.
  • Preventive maintenance helps to protect the computer equipment against future problems.*
  • Preventive maintenance allows the IT department to regularly monitor the contents of user hard drives to ensure computer use policies are being followed.
  • Preventive maintenance enables the IT manager to check on the location and state of the computer assets.

16. A technician opens up a PC to work on it, and finds that it is very dusty inside. What should the technician do?

  • Ignore the dust, as it does not affect the computer.
  • Use a lint-free cloth sprayed with a cleaning solution to remove excess dust.
  • Use a can of compressed air to remove excess dust.*
  • Use a moistened cotton swab to remove excess dust.

17. Which built-in tool is available on a Mac OS X machine to perform disk backups?

  • Disk Utility
  • Deja Dup
  • Finder
  • Time Machine*

18. A computer technician performed a number of actions to correct a problem. Some actions did not solve the problem, but eventually a solution was found. What should be documented?

  • everything that was done to try to solve the problem*
  • only the solution, because this solved the problem
  • only the failed attempts, so that future technicians will know what not to try
  • a description of the problem and solution

19. After a computer is powered on, Windows 7 fails to start. What initial procedure would a technician use to deal with this failure?

  • Create a System Repair Disc and restore the image.
  • Press the F12 key during the boot process and start the computer in Safe Mode.
  • Boot from a Windows 7 installation media and access the System Restore utility.*
  • Access the Control Panel and choose Restore Files from Backup from the System and Security menu.

20. What are two advantages of the NTFS file system compared with FAT32? (Choose two.)

  • NTFS allows faster access to external peripherals such as a USB drive.
  • NTFS supports larger files.*
  • NTFS provides more security features.*
  • NTFS allows faster formatting of drives.
  • NTFS is easier to configure.
  • NTFS allows the automatic detection of bad sectors.

21. What type of hard drive contains flash memory for caching frequently used data but stores the most of the data on a magnetic hard disk drive?

  • USB flash drive
  • solid-state drive
  • embedded multimedia card
  • solid-state hybrid disk*

22. What does %USERPROFILE% represent in the path C:Users%USERPROFILE%AppDataLocalTemp?

  • the location of the Documents folder of a particular user
  • an environment variable that is set by the operating system*
  • a variable set by the administrator for each user of the system
  • a fixed value that represents the level of access of a user to system files

23. A technician notices that an application is not responding to commands and that the computer seems to respond slowly when applications are opened. What is the best administrative tool to force the release of system resources from the unresponsive application?

  • Task Manager*
  • Add or Remove Programs
  • Event Viewer
  • System Restore

24. A technician has installed a new sound card in a PC but it is not operating correctly. Where should the technician look to investigate driver problems?

  • Computer Management
  • Device Manager*
  • My Computer
  • System Tools

25. Which technology provides a solution for PC virtualization?

  • hypervisor*
  • server clustering
  • Terminal Services
  • RAID

26. What are two consequences of setting an incorrect boot order in the system BIOS? (Choose two.)

  • The computer locks up without any error messages.
  • The computer displays a “BOOTMGR is missing” error after POST.*
  • The computer displays an “Invalid Boot Disk” error after POST.*
  • The computer continually restarts without displaying the desktop.
  • The computer displays an ‘Inaccessible Boot Device’ error after POST.

27. A network administrator has finished migrating from a peer-to-peer network to a new client-server network configuration. What are two advantages of the new configuration? (Choose two.)

  • The total cost of the new solution is considerably lower.
  • Data is more secure in the event of hardware failures.*
  • Individual users are in control of their own computers and network resources.
  • Data resources and access are centrally controlled.*
  • Personnel costs are lower because a dedicated network administrator is no longer necessary.

28. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for physical addressing and the procedures used to access media?

  • application
  • data link*
  • network
  • transport

29. The current IP configuration of a medium size company with several subnets is done manually and is time-consuming. Because of increased network growth, a technician needs a simpler way for IP configuration of workstations. Which service or protocol would simplify the workstation IP configuration task?

  • APIPA
  • DHCP*
  • DNS
  • ICMP

30. Several messages sent to the network administrator are reporting that access to a secure server using HTTPS is failing. After checking recent updates to the company firewall, the administrator learns that the firewall is blocking HTTPS. Which port should be opened to solve the problem?

  • 22
  • 53
  • 80
  • 143
  • 443*

31. Which two commands could be used to check if DNS name resolution is working properly on a Windows PC? (Choose two.)

  • nslookup cisco.com*
  • net cisco.com
  • ping cisco.com*
  • nbtstat cisco.com
  • ipconfig /flushdns

32. Which wireless security mode supports government grade security and offers both personal and enterprise authentication?

  • WEP
  • WPA2*
  • WPA
  • LEAP

34. A network administrator occasionally asks a technician to make sure that dust does not accumulate on devices in the network equipment closets. What is the purpose of having the technician do this job?

  • Dust can cause network equipment to overheat and cause problems on the network.*
  • Dust increases electromagnetic interference in nearby connected cables.
  • Dust can encourage insects and other pests to live in the equipment closets.
  • Dust is considered a fire hazard that poses danger to personnel and equipment.
  • Dust diminishes the range of wireless services.

35. A technician installed a network adapter in a computer and wants to test network connectivity. The ping command can receive responses from workstations on the same subnet but not from remote workstations. What could be causing the problem?

  • The NIC driver is out of date.
  • The operating system is not compatible with the remote sites.
  • The TCP/IP protocol stack is not loaded.
  • The default gateway is incorrect.*

36. What are three common input devices found on laptops? (Choose three.)

  • touchpad*
  • fingerprint reader*
  • web camera*
  • external monitor
  • PS/2 keyboard
  • AC power connector

37. A user calls the help desk to report that a mobile device exhibits very slow performance. What could cause this problem?

  • The touchscreen is not calibrated.
  • An app is not compatible with the device.*
  • The operating system has encountered an error.
  • A power-intensive app is running at the background.

38. A computer technician has decided that a problem with a laptop can be solved by repairing a hardware component. What should be done first before attempting to repair a hardware component on a laptop?

  • Consult the service manual for the laptop.*
  • Ask a fellow technician for advice.
  • Backup the BIOS settings.
  • Remove the keyboard.

39. Which closed-ended question would be appropriate for a technician to use to narrow down the possible problems on a laptop that will not power on?

  • Can the laptop operate using the AC adapter?*
  • Have you changed your password recently?
  • What software has been installed recently?
  • What were you doing when the problem occurred?

40. A technician is troubleshooting the appearance of flashing lines on a laptop screen. What are two possible causes of this distortion? (Choose two.)

  • Power to the pixels has been removed.
  • The display settings have been changed.
  • The GPU is not cooling correctly.*
  • The LCD cutoff switch is damaged.
  • The display is not correctly installed.*

41. What is an indication that the battery in a mobile device could become physically hazardous and should be immediately replaced?

  • if the battery only supports the system for a reduced period of time
  • if there are signs of swelling*
  • if the screen brightness begins to dim
  • if the device feels warm to the touch

42. Refer to the exhibit. What is true of this mobile device screen?

ITE Final Exam v6 001

  • Tapping and holding the arrow at the bottom left will display the Home screen.
  • Text messages, news, photos and other content can be displayed in the different tiles.*
  • Icons and buttons are used to represent the different apps on the phone.
  • Unpinning an app from this view will uninstall the app from the phone.
  • Tile sizes depend on the size of the app.

43. What are two potential risks that could result from rooting or jailbreaking a mobile device? (Choose two.)

  • enabling app access to the root directory*
  • not properly creating or maintaining sandboxing features*
  • allowing the user interface to be extensively customized
  • improving device performance
  • enabling features that are disabled by a cellular carrier

44. What two tasks should be done regularly to preserve the security and integrity of data and applications on mobile devices. (Choose two.)

  • Execute a factory reset once a month to remove all unidentified malicious software.
  • Back up user data on a regular basis.*
  • Password protect iTunes or Google Play accounts.
  • Use airplane mode if you are accessing the Internet at an open Wi-Fi site.
  • Ensure that the operating system software and applications contain the latest updates.*
  • Unmount all unused disk partitions.

45. A tire store needs to use carbon copy paper to print customer invoices so that both the store and the customer have a copy. What is the best printer solution?

  • piezoelectric printer
  • inkjet printer
  • thermal printer
  • impact printer*

46. A user on a home network wants to share a printer from a Windows 7 computer. What must the user do in order for other Windows 7 computers in the house to obtain the proper driver?

  • The user must browse the Internet, then download and install the proper driver.
  • The person doing the sharing must use the Additional Drivers button in order to designate how many device drivers are allowed to be downloaded.
  • Nothing. Windows automatically provides the driver.*
  • The person doing the sharing must use the Additional Drivers button in order to designate the driver to be used by the other Windows 7 computers.

48. What characterizes a DDoS attack?

  • Many hosts participate in a coordinated attack.*
  • Infected computers are called daemons.
  • It is easy to identify the source of the attack.
  • All hosts must be in the same geographic area.

49. What guideline should be followed when establishing a password security policy?

  • Passwords should be physically stored in a convenient location.
  • Passwords should contain mainly numbers for better encryption.
  • The system administrator should assign passwords to the users.
  • Lockout policies should be avoided in order to increase user access.
  • An expiration period should be established so that passwords frequently change.*

50. What are three features provided by the TPM module? (Choose three.)

  • hashed encryption of the hard drive volume
  • security for user authentication information*
  • support for Windows backup
  • application license protection*
  • storage of digital certificates*
  • support for Windows Firewall

51. What is the next troubleshooting step after a theory of probable cause has been established?

  • Test the theory to determine cause.*
  • Identify the exact problem.
  • Establish a plan of action.
  • Document findings and outcomes.

52. Once a technician understands a customer complaint, it is common to ask closed-ended questions. Which question is a close-ended one?

  • What happened before the error occurred?
  • Is this the first time the error occurred?*
  • What happened after the error occurred?
  • What error messages were displayed when the error occurred?

53. What is a characteristic of the open source license of an application software?

  • It requires registration instead of purchasing.
  • It cannot be used for campus-wide deployment.
  • It allows users to modify and share the source code.*
  • It does not require purchase in order to use the software.
  • It requires acknowledged completion of a professional training course prior to use.

54. Chad, a level one call center technician, receives a customer phone call. The customer has an issue that Chad does not have the knowledge to answer. The customer is irritated that Chad cannot provide immediate assistance. Which two things should Chad do next? (Choose two.)

  • Document the reason the customer called and create a support ticket.*
  • Inform the customer of the need to call back later.
  • Escalate the customer to a level two technician.*
  • Ask the customer further questions to diagnose and attempt to fix the problem.
  • Place the customer on hold until the customer has time to cool down.

55. Users in an office complain that the network printer is printing vertical lines on all pages. What is a likely cause of this problem?

  • The printer does not have enough memory.
  • The printer has an incorrect IP address.*
  • The printer toner is low.
  • The printer drum is damaged.

56. A technician is troubleshooting a Windows 7 computer that displays an “Invalid Boot Disk” error message. What would be the most likely action the technician should perform to correct the issue?

  • Use the System Recovery Options to select the correct active partition.*
  • Scan for and remove any virus found.
  • Run chkdsk /F /R to fix the hard drive file entries.
  • Replace the hard drive on the computer.

57. When a user tries to run a program, a missing or corrupt DLL message is displayed. What are two possible solutions to this problem? (Choose two.)

  • Reinstall the correct drivers.
  • Use the msconfig command to adjust the startup settings for the program.
  • Run Windows Startup Repair.
  • Run sfc/scannow in Safe Mode.*
  • Reinstall the program that is associated with the corrupt DLL file.*

58. What can help control the effect of RFI on a wireless LAN?

  • Ensure the humidity and temperature levels are set as low as possible.
  • Ensure the number of wireless NICs exceeds the number of wireless phones.
  • Ensure the wireless network is on a different frequency than the offending source.*
  • Ensure each wireless NIC is configured to operate at different frequencies from all other wireless NICs.

59. A technician wants to allow users to backup and restore all the files on their computers, but does not want the users to be able to make changes to the system. How should the technician give users this functionality?

  • Grant the users read permissions on all files.
  • Give the users administrator rights on their computers.
  • Make the users members of a group called Backup Operators.*
  • Check the Folder is Ready for Archiving box in the properties of each folder.

60. Match the facility access control devices to the correct descriptions. (Not all options are used.) Question

ITE Final Exam v6 Question 001

Answer

ITE Final Exam v6 Answer 001

61. Why do laptop computers use CPU throttling techniques?

  • to enhance the performance of the CPU
  • to reduce the heat that the CPU may generate*
  • to ensure the CPU is running at its peak speed
  • to conserve the battery life by reducing the bus speed between the CPU and RAM

62. What tool is included in the Mac OS X for backing up disks to image files and recovering disk images?

  • Disk Utility*
  • Deja Dup
  • Disk Error-Checking
  • System Restore

63. A new technician has joined the IT team and is about to service a heavy printer. Which two precautions should be taken to avoid any injury when transporting the heavy printer to the service area? (Choose two.)

  • Avoid lifting the equipment using the strength in your back.*
  • Lift the equipment using the strength in your legs and knees.*
  • Avoid bending your knees when lifting the printer.
  • Bend your back to pick the printer up.
  • Avoid lifting the printer close to your body.

64. Refer to the exhibit. As part of the process of building a computer, what is the proper order of the first three steps in the installation of a power supply?

ITE Final Exam v6 002

  • Steps 1, 2, 4
  • Steps 1, 3, 2
  • Steps 1, 4, 3*
  • Steps 2, 3, 4

65. Which two operations can help prevent a mobile device from being tracked without permission? (Choose two.)

  • Turn off the GPS when not in use.*
  • Use a VPN connection whenever possible.
  • Set the device to not store credentials.
  • Set the device to connect only to known WiFi networks.
  • Disable or remove apps that allow connections to the GPS.*

66. What is a characteristic of a computer power connector?

  • A Molex power connector supplies power to a motherboard.
  • A Molex connector and a SATA connector can be used on the same drive at the same time.
  • A SATA power connector is used to connect to a hard disk drive or an optical drive.*
  • An ATX main power connector supplies power to a video adapter.

67. Which expansion card can assist in troubleshooting a computer problem when no video is available?

  • BIOS card
  • advanced graphics card
  • USB expansion card
  • POST card*

68. Which two PC settings can be configured using the BIOS setup utility? (Choose two.)

  • POST
  • virtualization support*
  • allocation of memory to applications
  • enabling device drivers
  • boot sequence*

69. What factor should be taken into consideration more with laptops than with desktops?

  • environmental control*
  • loose cables
  • short circuits
  • unseated adapter cards

70. What are three benefits of computer preventive maintenance? (Choose three.)

  • elimination of the need for repairs
  • improvement in data protection*
  • extension of the life of components*
  • reduction in the number of equipment failures*
  • time savings for technicians making repairs
  • improvement in RAM access time

71. Which step in the troubleshooting process is important to help avoid repeating repair processes that were performed previously?

  • identification of the problem
  • implementation of the solution
  • documentation of the problem and its solution*
  • preparation of a plan of action

72. A computer user complains of a computer that freezes up after about five minutes of use. The technician checks the computer BIOS to see if there might be a configuration problem that is causing the computer to behave consistently in this manner. While the technician is reviewing the information, the computer once again freezes. What is the probable cause of the computer problem?

  • The BIOS is corrupt.
  • The hard drive is failing.
  • The CPU fan is not functioning.*
  • The CMOS battery has failed.

73. Why is a full format more beneficial than a quick format when preparing for a clean OS installation?

  • A full format is the only method of installing Windows 8.1 on a PC that has an operating system currently installed.
  • A full format will delete files from the disk while analyzing the disk drive for errors.*
  • A full format will delete every partition on the hard drive.
  • A full format uses the faster FAT32 file system, whereas a quick format uses the slower NTFS file system.

74. What is the default file system used during a fresh installation of Windows 7?

  • NTFS*
  • HPFS
  • FAT16
  • FAT32

75. What is the first step an administrator should take when splitting a single partition into multiple partitions?

  • Format the partition.
  • Assign a drive letter to the partition.
  • Extend the partition.
  • Shrink the partition.*

76. A user notices that some of the programs that are installed before upgrading Windows to a new version no longer function properly after the upgrade. What can the user do to fix this problem?

  • Use the System Restore utility.
  • Update the driver for the graphics card.
  • Run the programs in Compatibility Mode.*
  • Use the recovery partition to reinstall Windows.

77. After a Windows operating system has been installed, which program would a technician use to select the programs that will run at startup?

  • Ntldr
  • Regedit
  • Msconfig*
  • Task Manager

79. What are the four layers in the TCP/IP reference model?

  • application, presentation, internet, network access
  • application, transport, network, data link
  • application, transport, internet, network access*
  • application, presentation, session, transport
  • physical, data link, network, transport

80. A user wants to map a network drive on a PC that is named “WORK2” and runs Windows 7. The name of the shared resource the user wishes to map to is called “installs” and is located on a workstation called “WORK1”. What would be the correct path for mapping the network drive?

  • \ usernameWORK2\installs
  • \usernamepassword/WORK1/installs
  • // WORK2/installs
  • \work1installs*
  • \usernameWork2installs
  • WORK2|installs

81. A customer who travels frequently wants to know which technology is the most suitable for being connected to the corporate network at all times at low cost. Which network technology would a network administrator recommend?

  • satellite
  • ISDN
  • cellular*
  • microwave

82. What is the difference between cloud computing and a data center?

  • A data center provides access to shared computing resources, wheras a cloud is a private on-premise facility that stores and processes local data.
  • Cloud computing solutions are network resources and services provided to the clients through the use of services from data centers.*
  • The data center makes use of more devices to process data.
  • Data centers require cloud computing but cloud computing does not require data centers.

83. A user complains about being unable to connect to the wireless network. Which two actions should be part of troubleshooting the wireless connection? (Choose two.)

  • Verify that the laptop is plugged into an electrical outlet.
  • Reconfigure TCP/IP settings on the laptop.
  • Reinsert the laptop battery.
  • Try moving the laptop to different places to see if a signal can be detected.*
  • Verify in the laptop software whether any wireless networks are detected. *

84. A technician installed a network adapter in a computer and wants to test network connectivity. The ping command can only receive a response from local workstations. What could be causing the problem?

  • The NIC driver is out of date.
  • The operating system is not compatible with the remote sites.
  • The TCP/IP protocol stack is not loaded.
  • The default gateway is not set.*

85. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer’s problem?

  • improper IP address configuration on the host
  • hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP
  • bad cables or connections at the customer site
  • failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses *

86. A technician is asked to configure the time that the system must be idle before the hard disk spins down on all the Windows-based laptops in the company. The technician configured the power options in Windows but it appears to have no effect. Where should the technician look to enable power management?

  • Administrative Tools
  • BIOS*
  • Command Prompt
  • Safe mode
  • System Registry

87. A technician needs to configure a Bluetooth headset for a laptop user. Which two steps should the technician take before installing the headset? (Choose two.)

  • Remove the battery.
  • Disconnect AC power.
  • Enable Bluetooth in BIOS Setup.*
  • Ensure that the antistatic wrist strap is attached to a nonpainted portion of the laptop.
  • Ensure that the laptop Bluetooth switch is enabled.*

88. What laptop component converts DC power to AC so that the display can illuminate?

  • inverter*
  • backlight
  • CCFL
  • battery
  • motherboard

89. A user downloads a widget onto his Android phone but is puzzled to see that when the widget is touched an app is launched. What is a possible cause?

  • The user has downloaded a virus.
  • The widget is corrupt.
  • The security settings of the Android OS have been compromised.
  • The widget is associated with the app and this is the normal behavior.*

90. Which component uses the greatest amount of power on most mobile devices?

  • LCD screen*
  • camera
  • CPU
  • media player

91. What is the purpose of using the MIME email protocol on mobile devices?

  • to enable pictures and documents to be included in email messages*
  • to re-synchronize the email account with other devices
  • to remotely lock the email account if the device is stolen
  • to encrypt the email messages

92. What is an indication that the battery in a mobile device could become physically hazardous and should be immediately replaced?

  • if the battery only supports the system for a reduced period of time
  • if there are signs of swelling*
  • if the screen brightness begins to dim
  • if the device feels warm to the touch

94. For cleaning a laser printer, what should be used to pick up excess particles of toner?

  • a HEPA-capable vacuum*
  • a lint-free cloth
  • isopropyl alcohol
  • a damp cloth

95. Which two password control policies should an organization implement to ensure strong passwords? (Choose two.)

  • Passwords should be set to expire every 60 days.*
  • Passwords should contain no more than eight characters.
  • Passwords must contain encrypted characters.
  • Passwords should contain letters and numbers.*
  • Passwords should contain only capital letters.

96. A computer technician has been asked to secure all Windows 7 computers by encrypting all the data on each computer. Which Windows feature should be used to provide this level of encryption?

  • BitLocker*
  • EFS
  • TPM
  • Windows Update

97. The activity of a previously unknown program triggers an alert by Windows firewall. What three options will the user have for dealing with this event? (Choose three.)

  • Keep blocking*
  • Unblock*
  • Ask me later*
  • Deny all
  • Turn off
  • Turn on

98. A technician suspects that a security issue is causing problems with a computer. What two actions could be performed to test theories of probable cause when troubleshooting the PC? (Choose two.)

  • Log in as a different user.*
  • Disconnect the computer from the network.*
  • Search helpdesk repair logs for more information.
  • Discuss solutions with the customer.
  • Ask the customer open-ended questions about the problem

99. A call center technician answers a call from a frequent customer who is known to be impatient and lacks experience with computers. The customer has an issue with an application that the call center supports. The customer informs the technician that the problem had been reported before but the original technician was rude, did not listen, and did not fix the problem. If the technician is confident that the problem can be resolved by increasing the amount of memory in the computer, what should the technician do?

  • Tell the customer to install 2 GB of DDR3 PC3-10600 RAM.
  • Explain that the original technician is no good and the supervisor will be told.
  • Suggest that the customer purchase a new computer.
  • Confirm the issues and give detailed instructions to solve the problem.*

100. What expectation is defined in the service level agreement between an organization and service vendor?

  • guaranteed service response time*
  • maximum number of service calls per day
  • chain of custody procedures
  • communication etiquette rules

101. In which circumstance should a level one technician initiate an escalated work order?

  • when a customer appears to be very knowledgeable
  • when a customer demands talking to a particular technician
  • when a problem requires expertise from another technician*
  • when the technician cannot understand the problem as explained by the customer

102. An application appears frozen and is not responding to a mouse or the keyboard. What Windows OS tool can be used to stop the application?

  • Event Viewer
  • Task Manager*
  • Device Manager
  • Disk Management

103. Which two issues are likely to cause BSOD errors? (Choose two.)

  • out-of-date browser
  • RAM failing*
  • device driver errors*
  • lack of antivirus software
  • power supply failure

104. A user has installed a new FTP client on a computer, but is unsuccessful in connecting to an FTP server. Which two key pieces of information should the user ensure are configured correctly on the FTP client? (Choose two.)

  • username
  • password
  • FTP client IP address
  • FTP server IP address*
  • FTP client port number
  • FTP server port number *

105. A technician who is working on an employee’s laptop finds that a number of files that were encrypted on a network server drive are present on the laptop drive in unencrypted form. What could cause this problem?

  • Encrypted files cannot be transferred across a network.
  • The new computer doesn’t have an NTFS partition.*
  • The network proxy decrypted the data to scan it for malware.
  • The sensitive data was transferred with the FTP protocol.

106. Users in an office complain that the network printer is printing vertical lines and streaks on all pages. What is a likely cause of this problem?

  • The printer has an incorrect IP address.
  • The wrong print driver is installed.
  • The printer drum is damaged.*
  • The printer does not have enough memory.
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CCNA Questions AnswersFinalExam1998man1998mansousou Recent comment authors
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FinalExam
Guest
FinalExam

Our teacher told us that we have 1 final exam with 60 questions .. someone the same ?

1998man
Guest
1998man

Hi can you please make the updated version because in the exam we only have 60 questions

sousou
Guest
sousou

helllo i would like to know if this questions and answers are still the same for it essentials 2019?

dvaghvfsghvfgh
Guest
dvaghvfsghvfgh

Users in an office complain that the network printer is printing vertical lines and streaks on all pages. What is a likely cause of this problem?
The printer has an incorrect IP address.
The wrong print driver is installed.
The printer drum is damaged.
The printer does not have enough memory.
Navigation Bar

sanjay
Guest
sanjay

is this real

sanjay
Guest
sanjay

thank you

yousuf
Guest
yousuf

ok

Ahsan Khayyam
Guest
Ahsan Khayyam

answers are very helpful in examas

laurence motloung
Guest
laurence motloung

wow this is all that I needed

sousou
Guest
sousou

this still work for ite 2019?

newane issa
Guest
newane issa

am so happy coz av completed final exams.

kole
Guest
kole

am done

J-HACKERMAN
Guest
J-HACKERMAN

Yes it only has 60 questions.

Honey-Maker
Guest
Honey-Maker

guys is it true dat final has 60 questions?

Pandabear
Guest
Pandabear

Yes

kwizzy
Guest
kwizzy

Is it really has 60 or 105 questions

RONNY
Guest
RONNY

YES

Kawinda
Guest
Kawinda

thank you very much

Pi4a
Guest
Pi4a

Users in an office complain that the network printer is printing vertical lines on all pages. What is a likely cause of this problem?
The printer does not have enough memory.
The printer has an incorrect IP address.
The printer toner is low.
The printer drum is damaged.

Correct answer is: The printer drum is damaged

alhua11
Guest
alhua11

the final exam will be same this question ??????????? or some of this question?????

sousou
Guest
sousou

what did you find please ? have you find the same? and is this still exist for ite 2019?

koki
Guest
koki

Yes , tell us which one !!

DAMIAN E. MTWEVE
Guest
DAMIAN E. MTWEVE

actually is the final exam that i didn’t complete but it doesn’t give the retake,please may you help so as i would complete this final exam?

DAMIAN E. MTWEVE
Guest
DAMIAN E. MTWEVE

I have done some questions ,due to time factor I didn’t complete some questions,but when i open for the retake it doesn’t show any retakel,so what can you do for me?

Ramakrishna yanapu
Guest
Ramakrishna yanapu

Plzz contact your instructor who has given to you

chingsongwang
Guest
chingsongwang

can you please tell us which ones that are wrong

yousuf
Guest
yousuf

red is rigth

m9nkey
Guest
m9nkey

A few of these have the wrong answer selected

landhere
Guest
landhere

Which ones? I don’t want to study the wrong answers.

John
Guest
John

then rather study the material