CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full – Advanced Routing

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CCNP Enterprise: Advanced Routing ( Version 8.0) – CCNP ENARSI 8 Final Exam

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has performed a partial configuration to prevent routes from being reinjected. What is the next configuration that should be issued?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 1

  • An access list with a deny statement must be created and used with redistribution.
  • A distribute list with a deny statement must be created and used with redistribution.
  • A route map with a deny statement must be created and used with redistribution.
  • A prefix list with a deny statement must be created and used with redistribution.

2. In which two situations is a metric not required for performing redistribution into the EIGRP routing process? (Choose two.)

  • when redistributing routes from OSPF
  • when redistributing routes from RIP
  • when redistributing static routes
  • when redistributing routes from BGP
  • when redistributing routes from another EIGRP autonomous system

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has issued the commands shown on a boundary router. What are two results of the network engineer issuing this command? (Choose two.)

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 2

  • The internal administrative distance for EIGRP AS 66 has been changed to 66.
  • The internal administrative distance has changed to 66 and the external administrative distance has changed to 90 for routes sourced from the router with IP 172.16.55.1.
  • The router has created the EIGRP autonomous system of 66.
  • The network 172.16.55.0 has a modified internal metric of 66.
  • The internal administrative distance has been changed to 66 for routes sourced from the router with IP 172.16.55.1 and matching ACL 90.

Explanation: The EIGRP command distance 66 172.16.55.1 0.0.0.0 90 changes the AD to 66 for all EIGRP routes learned from neighbor 172.16.55.1 that match the specific network prefix of ACL 90.

4. What type of BGP message precedes the successful formation of a BGP peering session?

  • keepalive
  • established
  • withdraw
  • open
  • update

Explanation: A BGP open message is used to establish a BGP adjacency. Both peer sides negotiate session capabilities before BGP peering is established.

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring BGP on a router. Which configuration step is needed in order to establish the BGP session with the neighbor router?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 3

  • Configure the keepalive timer.
  • Initialize and activate the address family.
  • Advertise the networks attached to the router.
  • Restart the BGP process.

Explanation: For a BGP session to initiate, one address family for a neighbor must be activated. On Cisco routers the IPv4 address family is activated by default; however, it may cause confusion when working with other address families. The BGP router configuration command no bgp default ip4-unicast disables the automatic activation of the IPv4 AFI.

6. Which two statements describe the BGP weight attribute? (Choose two.)

  • It is advertised to neighbor routers.
  • It correlates to the AS hop count.
  • It is an 8-bit value.
  • It is the first step in selecting the BGP best path.
  • It is a Cisco-defined attribute.

Explanation: BGP weight is a Cisco-defined attribute and the first step in selecting the BGP best path. Weight is a 16-bit value (0 through 65,535) assigned locally on the router; it is not advertised to other routers

7. Match the preference, that is used by the BGP origin attribute in best path calculation, to the order.

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 4

8. A network administrator is configuring BGP multipathing for paths learned from iBGP advertisement. What is a condition for additional paths to be considered equal to the best path?

  • The AIGP attribute must match.
  • The neighbor IP address must match.
  • The originated attribute must match.
  • The IGP cost must match for IBGP and EBGP.

Explanation: When you configure BGP multipathing, the additional paths need to match the following best-path BGP path attributes:
– Weight
– Local preference
– AS_Path length
– AS_Path content (although confederations can contain a different AS_CONFED_SEQ path)
– Origin
– MED
– Advertisement method (iBGP or eBGP) (If the prefix is learned from an iBGP advertisement, the IGP cost must match for iBGP and eBGP to be considered equal.)

9. A network administrator is troubleshooting an issue with a DMVPN tunnel. From the output of the show dmvpn command, the administrator notes that the tunnel is in the IPsec state. What problem does this state indicate?

  • The line protocol of the DMVPN tunnel is down.
  • The DMVPN spoke router has not registered.
  • IPsec tunnels have not established IKE sessions.
  • IPsec security associations are not established.

Explanation: The command show dmvpn [detail] provides the tunnel interface, tunnel role, tunnel state, and tunnel peers with uptime. When the DMVPN tunnel interfaceis administratively shut down, there are no entries associated to that tunnel interface. The tunnel states are, in order of establishment:
– INTF: The line protocol of the DMVPN tunnel is down.
– IKE: DMVPN tunnels configured with IPsec have not yet successfully established an Internet key exchange (IKE) session.
– IPsec: An IKE session is established but an IPsec security association (SA) has not yet been established.
– NHRP: The DMVPN spoke router has not yet successfully registered.
– Up: The DMVPN spoke router has registered with the DMVPN hub and received an ACK (positive registration reply) from the hub.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Phase 1 DMVPN. The hub router RH1 and the spoke router RS2 are already configured and the administrator is finalizing configurations on spoke router RS3 by mapping the NHRP and NHS addresses for the DMVPN hub. Which configuration should the administrator use for the ip nhrp map command?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 5

  • ip nhrp map 192.168.100.1 172.16.1.1
  • ip nhrp map 192.168.100.1 172.16.3.1
  • ip nhrp map 192.168.100.3 172.16.3.1
  • ip nhrp map 192.168.100.3 172.16.1.1

11. Which NHRP message type notifies routers of routes used by NHRP that are no longer available?

  • purge
  • registration
  • redirect
  • resolution

Explanation: Purge messages are sent to remove a cached NHRP entry. Purge messages notify routers of the loss of a route used by NHRP. Purges are typically sent by an NHS to NHCs (which it answered) to indicate that the mapping for an address/network that it answered is not valid anymore (for example, if the network is unreachable from the original station or has moved). Purge messages take the most direct path (spoke-to-spoke tunnel) if feasible. If a spoke-to-spoke tunnel is not established, purge messages are forwarded via the hub.

12. What information is maintained in the CEF adjacency table?

  • MAC address to IPv4 address mappings
  • the IP addresses of all neighboring routers
  • IP address to interface mappings
  • Layer 2 next hops

13. Refer to the exhibit. All networks are active in the same EIGRP routing domain. When the auto-summary command is issued on R3, which two summary networks will be calculated on R3? (Choose two.)

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 6

  • 172.16.0.0/16
  • 172.16.3.0/24
  • 192.168.1.0/30
  • 192.168.10.0/30
  • 192.168.10.0/24

Explanation: As a result of implementing EIGRP automatic summarization, router R3 uses a classful network addressing scheme to group networks together based on their classful network mask. 192.168.10.4/30 and 192.168.10.8/30 are shortened to 192.168.10.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24 is summarized to 172.16.0.0/16. 192.168.1.0/24 is already using its classful mask and is not summarized.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is disabled? (Choose two.)

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 7

  • 10.1.0.0/1
  • 10.1.2.0/24
  • 10.1.4.0/24
  • 10.1.4.0/28
  • 10.1.4.0/30

Explanation: If the no auto-summary command was issued disabling the autosummarization, all subnetworks will be advertised, without summarization.

15. Which is a characteristic of policy based routing (PBR)?

  • Packets originating from a router can be identified through local PBR policies.
  • PBR examines packets as they exit a router interface.
  • PBR policies are universal for all packets and modify the RIB.
  • Next-hop addresses defined in set statements are automatically placed in the routing table.

16. Which two statements are true of policy-based routing (PBR) as a path control tool? (Choose two.)

  • It can be applied only to link-state routing protocols.
  • It is applied only in the inbound direction.
  • Configured route map entries will have default sequence number increments of 5.
  • Packets that do not match any match statements will be dropped.
  • It provides a mechanism to specify one or more next hops for packets that match criteria.

17. A network administrator is writing a standard ACL that will deny any traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network, but permit all other traffic. Which two commands should be used? (Choose two.)

  • Router(config)# access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
  • Router(config)# access-list 95 permit any
  • Router(config)# access-list 95 host 172.16.0.0
  • Router(config)# access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
  • Router(config)# access-list 95 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.255
  • Router(config)# access-list 95 deny any

Explanation: To deny traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network, the access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 command is used. To permit all other traffic, the access-list 95 permit any statement is added.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Considering that R2, R3, and R4 are correctly configured, why did R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3, and R4?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 8

  • because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1
  • because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect
  • because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP
  • because there is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1

Explanation: The missing routes are the result of there not being an EIGRP adjacency between R1 and R2, R3, and R4.To establish adjacency, a router must send and receive hello packets over an interface to and from its neighbors. The interface Fa0/ of the router R1 is declared as passive, so R1 will not send hello packets over its interface Fa0/0.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 were configured with EIGRP message authentication, but the routers cannot exchange EIGRP messages. Which two problems are causing the EIGRP authentication failure between R1 and R2 in this configuration? (Choose two.)

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 9

  • The key ID is invalid, because its value has to be in the range from 1 to 2147483647.
  • The EIGRP message authentication is being configured on the wrong interface on R2.
  • The key chain name must be in upper case.
  • The routers have a different value for the key-string.
  • At least two keys had to be created for each key chain.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish an adjacency?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 10

  • The IPv4 address of Fa0/0 interface of R1 has a wrong IP address.
  • The AS number does not match on R1 and R2.
  • The automatic summarization is enabled on R1 and R2.
  • There is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1.

Explanation: To establish adjacency, both routers must be configured with the same AS number. The network 192.168.0.0 .0.0.255.255 command issued on R1 includes all networks from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. Therefore, the network 192.168.1.0/24 is also included.

21. Match the IPsec function with its description. (Not all options are used.)

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 11

Explanation: – Data integrity: Hashing algorithms ensure that packets are not modified in transit.
– Replay detection: This provides protection against hackers trying to capture and insert network traffic.
– Perfect forward secrecy: Each session key isderived independently of the previous key. A compromise of one key does not compromise future keys.

22. Match the IPsec function with the description.

Match the IPsec function with the description

23. Which three statements describe the IPsec protocol framework? (Choose three.)

  • AH provides integrity and authentication.
  • ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity.
  • AH uses IP protocol 51.
  • AH provides encryption and integrity.
  • ESP uses UDP protocol 50.
  • ESP requires both authentication and encryption.

Explanation: The two primary protocols used with IPsec are AH and ESP. AH is protocol number 51 and provides data authentication and integrity for IP packets that are exchanged between the peers. ESP, which is protocol number 50, performs packet encryption.

24. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to match networks for BGP route filtering. The administrator creates an ACE permit ip 10.0.32.0 0.0.31.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.192 . Which network matches the ACE?

  • 10.0.32.0/27
  • 10.0.66.0/24
  • 10.0.62.0/25
  • 10.0.31.0/26

25. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting BGP configuration and wants to display only routes that originated in AS 40. Which regular expression should the administrator use in the command show bgp ipv4 unicast regex regex-pattern ?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 12

  • show bgp ipv4 unicast regex ^40_
  • show bgp ipv4 unicast regex *40_
  • show bgp ipv4 unicast regex _40$ ????
  • show bgp ipv4 unicast regex .40.

Explanation: In troubleshooting BGP, regular expressions (regex) can be used to parse through the large number of available ASNs. Regular expressions are based on query modifiers used to select the appropriate content. The regex pattern 100_ indicates to only include the lines that contain the exact phrase of 100. Some regex query modifiers are as follows:

(underscore) – Matches a space
^ (caret) – Indicates the start of a string
$ (dollar sign) – Indicates the end of a string
. (period) – Matches a single character, including a space

26. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show bgp ipv4 unicast 172.16.0.0 command to check the route information in the BGP table. Which statement describes the characteristic of the advertisement of this route? 

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 13

  • The route is advertised for networks directly connected to the BGP router 192.168.2.2.
  • The route is advertised with the aggregate-address 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 summary-only command.
  • The route is advertised through an IGP.
  • The route is advertised through a static route.

27. What OSPF LSA type is used to advertise routes redistributed into an OSPF domain?

  • type 3
  • type 4
  • type 5
  • type 7

Explanation: OSPF uses six LSA types for IPv4 routing:
– Type 1, router: LSAs that advertise network prefixes within an area
– Type 2, network: LSAs that indicate the routers attached to broadcast segment within an area
– Type 3, summary: LSAs that advertises network prefixes that originate from a different area
– Type 4, ASBR summary: LSA used to locate the ASBR from a different area
– Type 5, AS external: LSA that advertises network prefixes that were redistributed in to OSPF
– Type 7, NSSA external: LSA for external network prefixes that were redistributed in a local NSSA area

28. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured two-way redistribution on router R1. What metrics will be used for redistributed routes?

CCNP ENARSI (300-410) Certification Practice Exam 41

  • EIGRP routes will have a metric of 1 and OSPF routes will have a metric of infinity.
  • EIGRP routes will have a metric of infinity and OSPF routes will have a metric of 20.
  • EIGRP routes will have a metric of 170 and OSPF routes will have a metric of 20.
  • EIGRP routes will have a metric of infinity and OSPF routes will have a metric of 1.

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table of R3 as a result of the redistribution configuration issued on R2?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 14

  • O E2 192.168.1.0/24 [110/20] via 10.23.1.1, 00:04:42, Serial0/0/1
  • O IA 10.23.1.0/30 [110/20] via 10.23.1.1, 00:04:42, Serial0/0/1
  • O E1 192.168.1.0/24 [110/86] via 10.23.1.1, 00:04:42, Serial0/0/1
  • D EX 10.23.1.0/30 [170/3072] via 10.12.1.2, 00:09:07, Serial0/0/1

30. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the problem on router R2?

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  • Implement the command no passive-interface Serial0/1.
  • Implement the command network 192.168.2.6 0.0.0.0 area 0 on router R2.
  • Change the router-id of router R2 to 2.2.2.2.
  • Implement the command network 192.168.3.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 on router R2.

31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a recent OSPF stub configuration between R3 and R4. The only routes that should appear on the routing table for R4 are intra-area routes and the default route. However, interarea routes are also appearing. What must the administrator do to fix this problem?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 16

  • Issue the keyword nssa on R3.
  • Issue the keyword nssa on R4.
  • Issue the keyword stub on R4.
  • Issue the keyword no-summary on R4.
  • Issue the keyword no-summary on R3.
  • Issue the keyword stub on R3.

32. Refer to the exhibit. Router R0-A is not learning all of the OSPF routes from the remote sites that connect to router R0-B and R0-C. What are two issues the network engineer should consider? (Choose two.)

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  • routes not going from the LSDB to the routing table because of ACL
  • DR selection
  • missing default route(s)
  • neighbor adjacency
  • SSH misconfiguration

33. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown. However, the show ipv6 ospf neighbor command reveals that there are no OSPFv3 neighbors established. What error in the configuration is preventing neighbor relationship from forming between the two routers? 

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 18

  • OSPFv3 is not enabled on the interfaces.
  • The IPv6 routing process is not enabled.
  • There is a link-local address conflict between the serial and gigabit interfaces on R1.
  • The IPv6 address family is not initialized on either router.

Explanation: The routers are unable to form an OSPFv3 adjacency because OSPFv3 has not been enabled on the interfaces with the ospfv3 1 ipv6 area 0 command.

34. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the command default-information originate in OSPFv3 global configuration mode on R1, but R2 is not receiving a default route. What is the problem?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 19

  • The default-information originate command is only used for OSPFv2.
  • R1 and R2 are on different subnets.
  • OSPFv3 is not running on R2.
  • R1 does not have a default route configured.

35. An administrator is troubleshooting an OSPFv3 network. Router A and router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using OSPFv3. While debugging the routing process, the administrator discovers that the networks that are advertised from router A do not show in the routing table of router B. Why is the routing information not being learned by router B?

  • Router A has a stub interface.
  • IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router B.
  • The OSPFv3 timers on both routers were adjusted for fast convergence.
  • An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from entering the interface on router B that is connected.

36. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 enable EIGRP on all of their interfaces. Which two conclusions can the field engineer draw from the outputs of the show ip route eigrp command on each router? (Choose two.)

CCNP ENARSI (300-410) Certification Practice Exam

  • Both routers are using the same path metric calculation method.
  • The path metric calculation used in R2 addresses the scalability with higher-capacity interfaces.
  • R1 and R2 are using the same K factors to calculate the path metric.
  • An adjacency will be allowed between the routers, as long as all the K factors in both routers are set to default values.
  • The EIGRP configuration mode of R1 uses wide metrics calculation.
  • R2 is using EIGRP classic configuration mode.

Explanation: The metrics for R2 routes are different from the metrics from R1 routes. This is because R1 is using EIGRP classic configuration mode that uses classic metrics, and R2 is using EIGRP named mode configuration that uses wide metrics by default. The EIGRP classic metric calculation uses 5 K values (K1 to K5) to calculate the metric, whereas the EIGRP wide metric calculation uses 6 K values (K1 to K6). The two metric styles will allow adjacency between the two routers, as long as K1 through K5 are the same, and K6 is not set. The wide metrics calculation addresses the issues of scalability with higher-capacity interfaces.

37. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants EIGRP on Router1 to load balance traffic to network 2001:db8:11:10::/64 across two interfaces. Currently traffic is using only interface GigabitEthernet0/1. A second route, not in the routing table, is available with a metric of 264000. What value is needed in the variance command to make EIGRP put the second route into the routing table?

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  • 4
  • 10
  • 1
  • 11

Explanation: A variance of 11 is needed to load balance across the second route. The metric of the existing successor route is 25000. The metric of the second route is 264000. The first metric needs to be multiplied by 11, which is 275000, in order for the route to be put into the routing table.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 has recently been configured and connected via interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0 to router R1. R1 is configured correctly, but fails to establish a neighbor relationship with R2. What is the problem?

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  • The EIGRPv6 process has not been activated on interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0.
  • The passive-interface command is preventing hello packets from being sent.
  • The command ipv6 unicast-routing should be implemented in the router configuration mode.
  • The command ipv6 unicast-routing has not been implemented.

39. An administrator wants to configure EIGRPv6 in an IPv6 network. Which three statements are valid for the configuration of EIGRPv6? (Choose three.)

  • Split horizon needs to be enabled on all EIGRPv6 hub routers.
  • The network statement must be configured for the EIGRPv6 process.
  • EIGRPv6 has to be directly configured on the interfaces over which it runs.
  • There is no network statement configuration for EIGRPv6.
  • When using a passive-interface configuration, EIGRPv6 does not have to be configured for that interface.
  • EIGRPv6 needs to be directly configured on an interface that has been made passive.

40. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured a class map as shown, but the traffic is not being classified as desired. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?

CCNP ENARSI (300-410) Certification Practice Exam 66

  • The traffic would be subject to the implicit default class.
  • The ACL-EIGRP is permitting the wrong IP multicast address.
  • The traffic would never match the CoPP-CLASS class map.
  • The ACL-ICMP access-list should be in a separate class map because it is not a routing protocol.

Explanation: A class map may contain one of two instructions: match-any or match-all . If you have multiple match commands in a single class map and match-any is used, it means the traffic must match one of the match commands to be classified as part of the traffic class. If you use match-all , the traffic must match all the match commands to be part of the traffic class. Considering the exhibit, it is not possible for a packet to be ICMP, BGP, and EIGRP at the same time. Therefore, the traffic would never match the CoPP-CLASS class map and would never be subject to the implicit default class.

41. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures AAA authentication on router R1. The ACS servers are configured and running. The administrator tests the configuration by telneting to R1. What will happen if the administrator attempts to authenticate through the RADIUS server using incorrect credentials?

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  • The enable secret password and a random username could be used in the next login attempt.
  • The authentication process stops.
  • The enable secret password could be used in the next login attempt.
  • The username and password of the local user database could be used in the next login attempt.

Explanation: The authentication for Telnet connections is defined by AAA method list AUTHEN. The AUTHEN list defines that the first authentication method is through an ACS server using the RADIUS protocol (or RADIUS server), the second authentication method is to use the local user database, and the third method is to use the enable password. In this scenario, however, because the administrator fails to pass the authentication by the first method, the authentication process stops and no other authentication methods are allowed.

42. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show run | section username|aaa|line|radius command to verify an AAA configuration on a Cisco router. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the command output? (Choose two.)

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  • The router must use Cisco default ports for authentication and accounting to connect to a RADIUS server.
  • Authentication for the vty lines is using the default authentication method.
  • Authentication for the console line will use local authentication as a fallback method if the RADIUS server is not available.
  • A missing ip radius source-interface command on RADIUS server settings may prevent the router from using the services of the server.
  • The Cisco router can use the radiuspassword pre-shared key to connect to a RADIUS server.

Explanation: The conclusions that can be drawn from the command output are:
According to the aaa authentication login VTY_ACCESS group RADIUSMETHOD local command the first method to be used is the group of servers in the RADIUSMETHOD group.
According to the aaa authentication login CONSOLE_ACCESS group RADIUSMETHOD local command, the first method to be used is the group of servers in the RADIUSMETHOD group, and the second method to be used if the servers are not available is the local username and password database.
RADIUS server is using ports 1812 and 1813 for authentication and accounting, so the port numbers on the Cisco router should be the same, not the Cisco default ports (1645 and 1646).
The router needs to be configured with the same pre-shared key for the RADIUS server, RADIUSPASSWORD .
When a router sources packets, it uses the exit interface as the source of the packet. If the exit interface is not configured with the IP address that the AAA server is expecting, the client cannot use the AAA server and the services it provides. It is recommended that the IP address of a loopback interface be used for the source of packets and as the client IP address that is configured on the AAA server. Therefore, the router should be configured with the ip radius source-interface [ loopback ] [ number ].

43. From the routing tables shown from routers within a multiarea OSPF network, which routing table would be from an internal router that is within a totally stub area?

A.

Gateway of last resort is 10.1.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 8 subnets, 4 masks
O IA 10.0.0.0/30 [110/4] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:40, GigabitEthernet0/1
O IA 10.0.0.4/30 [110/3] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:50, GigabitEthernet0/1
O IA 10.0.0.8/30 [110/66] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:50, GigabitEthernet0/1
O 10.1.0.0/24 [110/2] via 10.1.1.1, 01:18:00, GigabitEthernet0/1
C 10.1.1.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
L 10.1.1.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
O IA 10.2.0.0/25 [110/5] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:40, GigabitEthernet0/1
O IA 10.2.0.128/25 [110/6] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:40, GigabitEthernet0/1
O*IA 0.0.0.0/0 [110/3] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:50, GigabitEthernet0/1

B. 

Gateway of last resort is 10.1.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 2 masks
O 10.1.0.0/24 [110/2] via 10.1.1.1, 01:26:37, GigabitEthernet0/1
C 10.1.1.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
L 10.1.1.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
O*IA 0.0.0.0/0 [110/3] via 10.1.1.1, 01:26:27, GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

Gateway of last resort is 10.0.0.5 to network 0.0.0.0

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 10 subnets, 4 masks
O 10.0.0.0/30 [110/2] via 10.0.0.5, 01:42:33, GigabitEthernet0/1
C 10.0.0.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
L 10.0.0.6/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
C 10.0.0.8/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
L 10.0.0.9/32 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0
L 10.1.0.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0
O 10.1.1.0/24 [110/2] via 10.1.0.2, 01:42:38, GigabitEthernet0/0
O IA 10.2.0.0/25 [110/3] via 10.0.0.5, 01:42:33, GigabitEthernet0/1
O IA 10.2.0.128/25 [110/4] via 10.0.0.5, 01:42:33, GigabitEthernet0/1
192.168.0.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
O E2 192.168.0.0/30 [110/20] via 10.0.0.5, 01:42:33, GigabitEthernet0/1
O E2 192.168.0.64/26 [110/20] via 10.0.0.5, 00:47:20, GigabitEthernet0/1
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 10.0.0.5, 01:42:33, GigabitEthernet0/1

D. 

Gateway of last resort is not set

1.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets
C 1.1.1.1/32 is directly connected, Loopback0
S 10.0.0.0/8 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
203.0.113.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 203.0.113.0/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
L 203.0.113.1/32 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

44. How does Cisco implement interarea OSPF summarization?

  • It must be configured manually on ASBRs.
  • The summarized route metric is equal to the lowest cost of all subnets within the summary address range.​
  • Multiple routes inside the area are summarized by more than one LSA.​
  • It is performed automatically by OSPF.​

45. What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID? (Choose two.)

  • to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain
  • to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router
  • to enable the SPF algorithm to determine the lowest cost path to remote networks
  • to facilitate the establishment of network convergence
  • to facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full

Explanation: OSPF router ID does not contribute to SPF algorithm calculations, nor does it facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full. Although the router ID is contained within OSPF messages when router adjacencies are being established, it has no bearing on the actual convergence process.

46. How is the flooding scope of link state advertisements denoted within OSPFv3 LSAs?

  • The outer IPv6 OSPFv3 header uses three bits to determine LSA scope.
  • Three bits of the 16-bit LS type field of OSPFv3 LSAs set the scope.
  • ABR LSAs include scope information as part of the routing information payload.
  • LSA scope is specified by the area area-ID range prefix-length command.

47. A network technician is verifying the OPSFv3 address families configuration on a Cisco router. What would the technician expect to see displayed when the show ospfv3 database router adv-router 4.4.4.4 command is issued?

  • the LSAs created by the router on which the command is executed and sent to the router with RID 4.4.4.4
  • all area LSAs in the LSDB of the DR router on which the command is executed with RID 4.4.4.4
  • all LSAs in the LSDB of the router with RID 4.4.4.4
  • the LSAs received from the router with RID 4.4.4.4 that exist in the LSDB of the local router

48. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers R1 and R2 are configured for OSPFv3 and are routing for both IPv4 and IPv6 address families. Which two destination addresses will R1 use to establish a full adjacency with R2? (Choose two.)

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 24

  • ff02::5
  • fe80::2
  • 2001:db8:22::100
  • 172.17.66.1
  • 2001:db8:21:20::2

49. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network administrator to use SNMP version 2. The following commands were issued:
CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 25
R1(config)# snmp-server community batonaug ro SNMP_ACL
R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 version 2c batonaug
R1(config)# ip access-list standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit 192.168.10.3

Why is the administrator not able to get any information from R1?

  • The snmp-server enable traps command is missing.
  • There is a problem with the ACL configuration.
  • The snmp-server community command needs to include the rw keyword.
  • The snmp-server location command is missing.

Explanation: The permit statement with the incorrect IP address is the reason why the administrator is not able to access router R1. The correct statement should be permit 192.168.1.3. The snmp-server location and snmp-server enable traps commands are optional commands and have no relation to the access restriction to router R1. The rw keyword does not need to be included in this case because the administrator just wants to obtain information, not change any configuration.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The total number of packet flows is not consistent with what is expected by the network administrator. The results show only half of the flows that are typically captured for the interface. Pings between the router and the collector are successful. What is the reason for the unexpected results?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 26

  • Interface Fa0/0 is not configured as the source of the packets sent to the collector.
  • The interface is shutdown.
  • The Netflow collector IP address and UDP port number are not configured on the router.
  • The router is not configured to monitor outgoing packets on the interface.

Explanation: NetFlow flows are unidirectional. One user connection exists as two flows. The flow in each direction must be captured. This is done by using both the ip flow ingress and ip flow egress command on the interface.

51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the syslog service on a Cisco router. Which command should be used to configure an IPv4 address of 192.168.10.254 as the source address on the syslog packets as they exit the router R1?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 27

  • R1(config)#​logging host 192.168.10.254
  • R1(config)#​logging origin-id ip
  • R1(config)#​logging source-interface fa0/0
  • R1(config)# logging 192.168.10.254

52. Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

  • deny ip any any
  • deny ipv6 any any
  • permit ipv6 any any
  • deny icmp any any
  • permit icmp any any nd-ns
  • permit icmp any any nd-na

53. Which two networks would match the following prefix list? (Choose two.)

ip prefix-list MATCHTHIS seq 5 deny 10.1.0.0/16 ge 24 le 30
  • 10.0.0.0/16
  • 10.1.1.0/30
  • 10.1.0.0/24
  • 10.1.0.0/16
  • 10.0.0.0/24

54. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured the IPv6 ACL that is in the exhibit to permit outbound Telnet traffic to any destination, and block TCP connections from 2001:db8:1::1 to any destination. All other packets should be denied and logged. After implementing the ACL, all IPv6 traffic, including Telnet from the 2001:db8::/32 subnet is denied. What is the problem?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 28

  • The deny ipv6 any any log ACE is preventing NDP from functioning.
  • The eq telnet parameter should appear immediately after the IPv6 address in the first ACE.
  • The ACEs are in the wrong order.
  • The wildcard mask is missing from the first ACE.

55. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command show bgp ipv6 unicast | begin Network to check the BGP table. Which statement describes the routes with an unspecified address (::) in the Next Hop column? 

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 29

  • They are learned through an IGP.
  • They are locally generated network prefixes.
  • They indicate routes created by static route configuration.
  • They are learned through BGP advertisements from the next neighbor.

Explanation: An unspecified address in the BGP table indicates that the local router is generating the prefix for the BGP table. The weight value 32,768 also indicates that the prefix is locally originated by the router.

56. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show bgp ipv4 unicast 10.1.1.128 command on router R2 to verify the network 10.1.1.128 in the BGP table. The administrator notices that there are two paths to reach the network. Which BGP factor is used to determine the best-path?
CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 30

  • the value of the BGP RID
  • the value of the lowest multi-exit discriminator attribute
  • whether the path is being learned via IBGP or EBGP
  • the value of the weight attribute

Explanation: Cisco routers review BGP attributes in the following ranked order when deciding which path is the best-path:
– Prefer the highest weight .
– Prefer the highest local preference .
– Prefer the route originated by the local router.
– Prefer the path with the shorter Accumulated Interior Gateway Protocol (AIGP) metric attribute.
– Prefer the shortest AS_Path .
– Prefer the lowest origin code.
– Prefer the lowest multi-exit discriminator (MED).
– Prefer an external path over an internal path.
– Prefer the path through the closest IGP neighbor .
– Prefer the oldest route for EBGP paths.
– Prefer the path with the lowest neighbor BGP RID .
– Prefer the path with the lowest neighbor IP address .
The first path attribute to be checked is the weight. In this case, no weight is listed because both routes are using the default value 0. The next path attribute to be checked is the local preference. A higher value is better. Therefore, setting the local preference to 200 will make the path through 3.3.3.3 the best-path.

57. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring BGP route advertisement on router R1. The network 10.1.0.0/24 is subnetted into four 10.1.0.0/26 subnets that are attached to the 4 interfaces of R1 respectively. The administrator issues the show ip route command and notices that the network 10.1.0.0/24 is not advertised by BGP. What is a possible cause for this issue?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 31

  • Not all four interfaces are up/up.
  • The network mask command does not match the network/prefix in the routing table.
  • The BGP slit-horizon rule prevents the network from being advertised.
  • The network command is missing the summary-only keyword.

58. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol is used by R2 and R5 to exchange Layer 3 routes?

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 32

  • EIGRP
  • MP-BGP
  • LDP
  • OSPF

59. When an unlabeled packet arrives at an MPLS-enabled router interface, which database is used to make a forwarding decision on the packet?

  • IP routing table (RIB)
  • IP forwarding table (FIB)
  • label information base (LIB)
  • label forwarding table (LFIB)

60. Match the MPLS router type to its characteristic.

CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers Full - Advanced Routing 33


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Phibs
Phibs
1 month ago

Is there a valid dump for the ENARSI exam?

Fran Gómez Fernández
Fran Gómez Fernández
2 months ago

can’t wait! :-)