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Network Addressing and Basic Troubleshooting: My Knowledge Check Answers
1. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
- The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
- They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
- They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
- They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
Explanation: Light can only travel in one direction down a single strand of fiber. In order to allow for full-duplex communication two strands of fiber must be connected between each device.
2. Match the command to the function.
3. On a point-to-point network, which communication type is used when two devices can both transmit and receive but not at the same time?
- controlled access
- deterministic
- full-duplex
- half-duplex
Explanation: Half-duplex communication occurs when both devices can both transmit and receive on the medium but cannot do so simultaneously. Full-duplex communication occurs when both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time. Half-duplex communication is typically contention-based, whereas controlled (deterministic) access is applied in technologies where devices take turns to access the medium.
4. Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?
- collision detecting
- frame error checking
- faster frame forwarding
- frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information
Explanation: A switch using the store-and-forward switching method performs an error check on an incoming frame by comparing the FCS value against its own FCS calculations after the entire frame is received. In comparison, a switch using the cut-through switching method makes quick forwarding decisions and starts the forwarding process without waiting for the entire frame to be received. Thus a switch using cut-through switching may send invalid frames to the network. The performance of store-and-forward switching is slower compared to cut-through switching performance. Collision detection is monitored by the sending device. Store-and-forward switching does not use IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information for its forwarding decisions.
5. Local workstations are unable to access web pages located on the www.cisco.com web server. Pings from the workstations to the server using the ping www.cisco.com command are successful. What settings should the administrator check to determine the cause of the problem?
- IP address settings
- firewall settings
- MAC address settings
- DNS server settings
Explanation: If Layers 1 through 3 appear to be operating successfully and the devices can ping the web server, the firewall settings should be checked to determine if the web traffic to the server is permitted.
6. A PC has sent an RS message to an IPv6 router attached to the same network. Which two pieces of information will the router send to the client? (Choose two.)
- administrative distance
- domain name
- prefix
- prefix length
- subnet mask in dotted decimal notation
- DNS server IP address
Explanation: A router interface that has been configured with IPv6 addressing information responds to a router solicitation (RS) message with a router advertisement (RA) message. The RA message is used in the IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC) process and the message contains the local prefix and prefix length of the local segment such as 2001:db8:acad:1::/64.
7. What type of Ethernet frame does an IPv6 host use to send a message in responding to an address resolution request?
- unicast
- anycast
- multicast
- broadcast
Explanation: An IPv6 host will send a unicast Ethernet frame when the host receives a neighbor solicitation message.
8. Which information does the show startup-config command display?
- the IOS image copied into RAM
- the bootstrap program in the ROM
- the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM
- the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM
Explanation: The show startup-config command displays the saved configuration located in NVRAM. The show running-config command displays the contents of the currently running configuration file located in RAM.
9. A user can access a file share resource on a server located in the same office but cannot access the internet. What is the possible cause?
- The switch is malfunctioning.
- The DHCP server is disconnected.
- The default gateway address is misconfigured on the PC.
- The IPv4 address and subnet mask are misconfigured on the PC.
Explanation: The fact that the user can access a file share resource but not the internet indicates the issue might be caused by default gateway misconfiguration. If no default gateway is configured in the host TCP/IP settings, or if the wrong default gateway is specified, messages addressed to hosts on the internet cannot be delivered.
10. What address scope is used in the IPv6 frame to ensure that an IPv6 neighbor solicitation message would not be forwarded by routers?
- site-local scope
- link-local scope
- subnet-local scope
- interface-local scope
Explanation: An IPv6 neighbor solicitation message is sent via multicast. The multicast address is set with the link-local scope so the message can transmit only within the same link.
11. You are asked to document your school network. What type of topology diagram would you draw to show how devices are connected to the network?
- logical topology diagram
- physical topology diagram
Explanation: There are two types of topology diagrams. The logical topology uses icons to identify network devices and show how the devices are connected to the school network. The physical topology diagram shows where the network devices are actually located in each room of the school.
12. The home computer of a user is working properly. However, the user cannot access the Internet. The Internet connection is provided through a cable company. The user cannot identify the cause of the problem. Who should the user contact for further help?
- the operating system vendor
- the help line of the cable company
- the help line of the computer manufacturer
- the support web site of the computer vendor
Explanation: Assuming the computer was working properly before, the most possible cause of the problem is the Internet connection provided by the cable company. Computer vendors and manufacturers cannot help because the computer is working properly.
13. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices?
- 1 – rollover, 2 – crossover, 3 – straight-through
- 1 – rollover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – crossover
- 1 – crossover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – rollover
- 1 – crossover, 2 – rollover, 3 – straight-through
Explanation: A straight-through cable is commonly used to interconnect a host to a switch and a switch to a router. A crossover cable is used to interconnect similar devices together like switch to a switch, a host to a host, or a router to a router. If a switch has the MDIX capability, a crossover could be used to connect the switch to the router; however, that option is not available. A rollover cable is used to connect to a router or switch console port.
14. Users in a recently installed wireless network are complaining of slow data transfer and frequent loss of connectivity. The technician checks that the wireless security is correctly implemented, and there is no evidence of unauthorized users on the network. Which two problems might the technician suspect? (Choose two.)
- There is interference from outside sources.
- The DHCP server is faulty.
- The wireless signal is too weak.
- The antenna on the access point is too powerful.
- The network passwords need to be reissued to the users.
Explanation: Normally, the closer a wireless NIC is to an access point, the faster the connectivity. This problem does not require the network password to be reissued. The combination of the low bandwidth and the intermittent connectivity is pointing towards a weak signal or interference from outside sources.
15. A technician is setting up a network in a new room. What is the best device to use to connect the PCs to each other and to the rest of the LAN?
- gateway
- firewall
- switch
- router
Explanation: A gateway is a router used to interconnect networks and is not necessary in this situation. A hub does not segment a network and allows collisions to take place on the network segment. A switch will interconnect all the devices in a LAN.
16. Refer to the exhibit. The command output is from a wireless DHCP host connected to a Linksys integrated router. What can be determined from the output?
- A new wireless NIC needs to be installed.
- There is a DNS problem.
- The DHCP configuration needs to be checked.
- The connection to the SSID needs to be verified.
- An incorrect cable is being used between the host and the router.
Explanation: The default gateway IP address must be in the same network as the host in order for the host and router to communicate with each other. Because this is a DHCP client, the IP configuration is provided by the DHCP. Thus the DHCP configuration should be checked and corrected.
17. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::1. What is the target of this packet?
- the one IPv6 device on the link that has been uniquely configured with this address
- all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link or network
- only IPv6 DHCP servers
- only IPv6 configured routers
Explanation: FF02::1 is the all-nodes multicast group within the scope of the local link. A packet with this destination address is received and processed by all IPv6-enabled interfaces.
18. Which two types of signal interference are reduced more by STP than by UTP? (Choose two.)
- RFI
- white noise
- MDF
- dispersion
- EMI
Explanation: RFI, EMI, and crosstalk cause interference to the electrical signals that are transmitted through copper cables. Both UTP and STP use twisted pairs of wires that help protect against crosstalk. However, STP provides greater protection against RFI and EMI than UTP provides.
19. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
- RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
- ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
- NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
- Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
- ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
- Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS.
Explanation: A router contains four types of memory:
RAM – volatile memory used to store the running IOS, running configuration file, routing table, ARP table, as well as serve as a packet buffer
ROM – nonvolatile memory used to hold a limited version of the IOS, bootup instructions, and basic diagnostic software
NVRAM – nonvolatile memory used to hold the startup configuration file
Flash – nonvolatile memory used to hold the IOS and other system files
20. Which media access method requires that an end device send a notification across the media before sending data?
- CSMA/CA
- CSMA/CD
- deterministic
- token passing
Explanation: Using CSMA/CA as the media access control method, a device will examine the network media. If there is no carrier, the device sends a notification and, if no other device uses the media, it begins to send its data. This method differs from CSMA/CD, where a device will send data once it senses that the media is free, without sending a notification.
21. What type of route is indicated by the code C in an IPv4 routing table on a Cisco router?
- static route
- default route
- directly connected route
- dynamic route that is learned through EIGRP
Explanation: Some of the IPv4 routing table codes include the following:
C – directly connected
S – static
D – EIGRP
* – candidate default
22. Which type of static route creates a gateway of last resort?
- default static route
- floating static route
- standard static route
- summary static route
Explanation: There are four basic types of static routes. Floating static routes are backup routes that are placed into the routing table if a primary route is lost. A summary static route aggregates several routes into one, reducing the size of the routing table. Standard static routes are entered manually into the routing table. Default static routes create a gateway of last resort.
23. Which statement describes the half-duplex mode of data transmission?
- Data that is transmitted over the network can only flow in one direction.
- Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction at a time.
- Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction to many different destinations simultaneously.
- Data that is transmitted over the network flows in both directions at the same time.
Explanation: The data that is transmitted over the network can flow using one of three modes:
- Simplex – Data can only flow in one direction.
- Half-duplex – Data flows in one direction at a time.
- Full-duplex – Data flows in both directions at the same time.
24. A network technician enters the command ipconfig /release followed by ipconfig /renew in order to ensure that the DHCP IP configuration on a workstation is updated. However, the workstation does not receive a valid IP configuration for the network. Which two problems may exist on the network? (Choose two.)
- There is a DHCP server issue.
- The DHCP lease time is misconfigured.
- The gateway router address needs to be updated.
- There is no network connectivity to the DHCP server.
- The ipconfig /all command must be issued to restore all IP configurations.
Explanation: The command ipconfig /release will release the current DHCP binding. Ipconfig /renew will request fresh configuration information from the DHCP server. After these two commands are issued, if the workstation is unable to obtain a valid IP configuration from the DHCP server, it could be that there is no network connectivity or the DHCP server is not operational.
25. Following default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
- Perform the POST routine.
- Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
- Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
- Load the running-config file from RAM.
Explanation: There are three major steps to the router boot sequence:
- Perform Power-On-Self-Test (POST)
- Load the IOS from Flash or TFTP server
- Load the startup configuration file from NVRAM
26. Which address is used to derive an IPv6 interface ID using the EUI-64 method?
- IPv4
- MAC
- multicast
- Layer 4
Explanation: An IPv6 interface ID using the EUI-64 method is generated by inserting the hex digits FFFE between the first and last 24-bits of the interface MAC address and then inverting the seventh bit.
27. A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?
- The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.
- The computer has an invalid IP address.
- The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
- The computer has an invalid default gateway address.
Explanation: The default gateway is the address of the device a host uses to access the Internet or another network. If the default gateway is missing or incorrect, that host will not be able to communicate outside the local network. Because the host can access other hosts on the local network, the network cable and the other parts of the IP configuration are working.
28. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be used as the default gateway setting of host H1?
- R1: S0/0/0
- R2: S0/0/1
- R1: G0/0
- R2: S0/0/0
Explanation: The default gateway for host H1 is the router interface that is attached to the LAN that H1 is a member of. In this case, that is the G0/0 interface of R1. H1 should be configured with the IP address of that interface in its addressing settings. R1 will provide routing services to packets from H1 that need to be forwarded to remote networks.
29. Which type of IPv6 address is not routable and used only for communication on a single subnet?
- global unicast address
- link-local address
- loopback address
- unique local address
- unspecified address
Explanation: Link-local addresses have relevance only on the local link. Routers will not forward packets that include a link-local address as either the source or destination address.
30. After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?
- flash
- ROM
- NVRAM
- RAM
Explanation: When changes are made to the running-config file, it should be saved to NVRAM as the startup configuration file in case the router is restarted or loses power. The following command saves the configuration to NVRAM:
copy running-config startup-config
31. Match the ICMPv6 messages to the description.
Explanation: Place the options in the following order:
| router advertisement message | provides network addressing information |
| neighbor advertisement message | provides MAC address information of a host |
| router solicitation message | requests network addressing information |
| neighbor solicitation message | requests MAC address of the destination host |
32. What type of address is automatically assigned to a Cisco router interface when an IPv6 global unicast address is assigned on that interface?
- broadcast
- link-local
- loopback
- unique local
Explanation: When IPv6 is enabled on any interface, that interface will automatically generate an IPv6 link-local address.
33. What terms represent the maximum and actual speed that can be utilized by a device to transfer data?
- bandwidth; throughput
- throughput; bandwidth
- bandwidth; goodput
- throughput; goodput
Explanation: Bandwidth measures the maximum rate at which a device can transfer data. However, in practice, the actual speed for data transfer could be reduced because of numerous factors like network congestion, overhead etc. This actual rate of transfer is known as throughput.
34. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?
- It accepts frames from the physical media.
- It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
- It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
- It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.
Explanation: The physical layer of the OSI model accepts frames from the data link layer and encodes it for transport as bits across the network media.
35. A router receives a packet from the Gigabit 0/0 interface and determines that the packet needs to be forwarded out the Gigabit 0/1 interface. What will the router do next?
- route the packet out the Gigabit 0/1 interface
- create a new Layer 2 Ethernet frame to be sent to the destination
- look into the ARP cache to determine the destination IP address
- look into the routing table to determine if the destination network is in the routing table
Explanation: Once a router receives a packet and looks inside the header to determine the destination network, the router compares the destination network to the routing table to determine if the packet is to be routed or dropped. If routed, the router attaches a new Layer 2 header based on the technology that is used by the outgoing port that is used. The packet is then routed out the destination port as designated by the routing table. The ARP cache is used to match an IP address with a MAC address.
36. During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?
- discard the traffic after consulting the route table
- look up the next-hop address for the packet
- switch the packet to the directly connected interface
- analyze the destination IP address
Explanation: A router receives a packet on an interface and looks at the destination IP address. It consults its routing table and matches the destination IP address to a routing table entry. The router then discovers that it has to send the packet to the next-hop address or out to a directly connected interface. When the destination address is on a directly connected interface, the packet is switched over to that interface.
37. Which troubleshooting method begins by examining cable connections and wiring issues?
- top-down
- bottom-up
- substitution
- divide-and-conquer
Explanation: In troubleshooting with the bottom-up method, a technician would start with the physical components of the network and move up through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem is identified.
38. Match the phases to the functions during the boot up process of a Cisco router.
Explanation: Place the options in the following order:
| phase 2 | locate and load the Cisco IOS software |
| phase 3 | locate and load the startup configuration file |
| phase 1 | perform the POST and load the bootstrap program |
39. IPv6 host A is sending a neighbor solicitation message to IPv6 host B on the same Ethernet network. What address type is used in the Destination MAC field of the Ethernet frame header?
- unicast MAC address
- anycast MAC address
- multicast MAC address
- broadcast MAC address
Explanation: When an IPv6 host sends a neighbor solicitation message to another IPv6 host on the same Ethernet network, the sending host creates an Ethernet frame and add a multicast MAC address in the Destination MAC address field.
40. A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high level of availability. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other node on the network?
- bus
- hierarchical
- star
- mesh
- ring
Explanation: The mesh topology provides high availability because every node is connected to all other nodes. Mesh topologies can be found in WANs. A partial mesh topology can also be used where some, but not all, end points connect to one another.
41. Which pairs of wires change termination order between the 568A and 568B standards?
- green and orange
- green and brown
- blue and brown
- brown and orange
Explanation: The difference between the 568A and 568B standards is the order in which the colored wire pairs are sequenced. It is the green and the orange pairs of wires that are swapped between the two standards.
42. A network specialist has been hired to install a network in a company that assembles airplane engines. Because of the nature of the business, the area is highly affected by electromagnetic interference. Which type of network media should be recommended so that the data communication will not be affected by EMI?
- STP
- coaxial
- fiber optic
- UTP
Explanation: Optical fiber uses light to transmit signals. Therefore, fiber-optic cable is not affected by EMI or RFI.
43. IPv6 host A is communicating with a remote IPv6 host B. Which device would send ICMPv6 redirect messages to inform that a better next-hop device should be used?
- Host A
- Host B
- A router in the traffic path
- The switch connected to Host A
- The switch connected to Host B
Explanation: When a router receives a data packet, it may analyze the best gateway device that the host should use. When there are multiple gateway devices available on a network, an IPv6 router will send ICMPv6 redirect messages to the sending host if it determines that there is a more efficient path for the transmissions.
44. Which address should be configured as the default gateway address of a client device?
- the Layer 2 address of the switch management interface
- the Layer 2 address of the switch port that is connected to the workstation
- the IPv4 address of the router interface that is connected to the same LAN
- the IPv4 address of the router interface that is connected to the internet
Explanation: The default gateway is used when a host needs to send messages to destinations that are located in remote networks. The default gateway address is configured on the host with the IPv4 address of the router interface that is connected to the same local network as the host.
45. Which two characteristics describe the use of a logical topology? (Choose two.)
- describing the infrastructure
- identifying cable length requirements
- identifying the interconnection of routers and switches
- identifying the virtual connections between devices
- identifying the type of media access control used
- showing the physical connections of end devices
Explanation: Physical topology refers to the physical connection and how hosts, switches, and routers are physically connected. Logical topology refers to how nodes transfer frames through virtual connections and how the upper layers perceive the network.
46. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6 addressing to end devices without using a server that keeps a record of available IPv6 addresses?
- stateful DHCPv6
- SLAAC
- static IPv6 addressing
- stateless DHCPv6
Explanation: Using stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC), a PC can solicit a router and receive the prefix length of the network. From this information the PC can then create its own IPv6 global unicast address.
47. What type of Ethernet cable would be used to connect one switch to another switch when neither switch supports the auto-MDIX feature?
- straight-through
- crossover
- coaxial
- rollover
Explanation: A straight-through cable can be used to connect a computer or a router to a switch. A rollover cable can be used to access a router or switch console line. A coaxial cable is not used any longer in Ethernet networks, but can be found in video connections. A crossover cable can be used to connect a switch to a switch, a computer to a computer, and a router to a router.
48. What are two common causes of a physical layer network connectivity problem? (Choose two.)
- a monitor unplugged
- an Ethernet cable plugged into a wrong port
- an incorrect default gateway
- an unassigned IP address
- a faulty Ethernet cable
Explanation: An Ethernet cable plugged into a wrong port and a faulty Ethernet cable are two possible causes for physical network connectivity issues. An incorrect default gateway configuration and a lack of an IP address will cause logical connectivity issues.
49. What are two services provided by IPv6 neighbor discovery protocol? (Choose two.)
- router discovery
- address resolution
- IPv6 dynamic routing
- domain name resolving
- maximum IPv6 packet size for end-to-end transmission
Explanation: IPv6 Neighbor Discovery protocol, also referred to as ND or NDP, provides address resolution, router discovery, and redirection services for IPv6 using ICMPv6.
50. Following default settings, what two tasks are performed first in the router boot sequence? (Choose two.)
- Perform the POST routine.
- Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.
- Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
- Load the running-config file from RAM.
- Locate and load the operating system.
Explanation: There are three major steps to the router boot sequence:
Perform Power-On-Self-Test (POST) and load the bootstrap program.
Load the IOS from Flash or TFTP server.
Load the startup configuration file from NVRAM.
51. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)
- arp -a
- ipconfig
- nslookup
- ping
- telnet
- tracert
Explanation: The ipconfig and nslookup commands will provide initial IP address and DNS configuration information to the technicians and determine if DHCP is assigning correct information to the PCs. The ping utility would be used to verify, or not, connectivity to the default gateway (router) using the configured default gateway address, or using the known correct default gateway address if these are found to be different. The arp -a or netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor commands could be used if the problem is then suspected to be an IP address to MAC address mapping issue. The telnet and tracert utilities could be used to determine where the problem was located in the network if the default gateway configuration was found to be correct.
52. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?
- link-local
- unique local
- site local
- global unicast
Explanation: All IPv6 enabled interfaces must at minimum have a link-local address. Other IPv6 addresses can be assigned to the interface as required.
53. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?
- presentation layer
- network layer
- physical layer
- data link layer
Explanation: The NIC has responsibilities in both Layer 1 and Layer 2. The NIC encodes the frame as a series of signals that are transmitted onto the local media. This is the responsibility of the physical layer of the OSI model. The signal could be in the form of electrical, optical, or radio waves.
54. A dental office provides a WLAN in the waiting area for patients to access the Internet. The WLAN is equipped with a wireless router that connects to the Internet through a cable connection. Which data transmission mode is used by wireless devices?
- simplex
- half-duplex
- full-duplex
- multi-duplex
Explanation: WLAN standards use carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA). Each wireless device that transmits data includes in the frame the time duration that it needs for the transmission. All other wireless devices receive this information and know how long the medium will be unavailable. Therefore, wireless devices operate in half-duplex mode.
55. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
- The IOS image is corrupt.
- Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
- The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
- The POST process has detected hardware failure.
Explanation: If a router cannot locate the startup-config file in NVRAM it will enter setup mode to allow the configuration to be entered from the console device.
56. What is one advantage of using fiber-optic cabling rather than copper cabling?
- It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
- It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
- It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.
- It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.
Explanation: Copper cabling is usually cheaper and easier to install than fiber optic cabling. However, fiber cables generally have a much greater signaling range than copper.
57. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting why PC1 cannot communicate with hosts in other networks. What is the problem?
- The subnet mask that is configured on PC1 is the same as the mask that is configured on the router R1 interface.
- The IP address that is configured on PC1 is in a different network than the gateway address on router R1.
- A default route has not been configured on router R1.
- A default gateway IP address of 10.20.1.1 needs to be configured on PC1.
Explanation: For PC1 to be able to communicate with hosts on the other networks, it needs to have an IP address in the same network as the gateway to which it is connected. Its current address of 10.100.1.10/16 is not within the 10.10.0.0/16 network of the gateway interface on R1 (address 10.10.1.1/16).
58. Which statement describes the ping and tracert commands?
- Tracert shows each hop, while ping shows a destination reply only.
- Tracert uses IP addresses; ping does not.
- Both ping and tracert can show results in a graphical display.
- Ping shows whether the transmission is successful; tracert does not.
Explanation: The ping utility tests end-to-end connectivity between the two hosts. However, if the message does not reach the destination, there is no way to determine where the problem is located. On the other hand, the traceroute utility (tracert in Windows) traces the route a message takes from its source to the destination. Traceroute displays each hop along the way and the time it takes for the message to get to that network and back.
59. Local workstations are unable to access web pages located on the www.cisco.com web server. Pings from the workstations to the server using the ping www.cisco.com command are successful. What settings should the administrator check to determine the cause of the problem?
- IP address settings
- firewall settings
- MAC address settings
- DNS server settings
Explanation: If Layers 1 through 3 appear to be operating successfully and the devices can ping the web server, the firewall settings should be checked to determine if the web traffic to the server is permitted.
60. What are IPv6 ULAs?
- a method of translating IPv6 addresses into IPv4 addresses
- a private IPv6 address range used for communication within a local site
- any device that can run both an IPv6 and an IPv4 protocol stack simultaneously
- tunneling protocols that allow two IPv6 networks to communicate across an IPv4 network
Explanation: IPv6 unique local addresses (ULAs) are a range of private addresses, similar to RFC 1918 addresses, which can be used to address endpoints in a local network. They are not meant to be routable on the Internet.
61. Which feature on a Cisco router permits the forwarding of traffic for which there is no specific route?
- next-hop
- gateway of last resort
- route source
- outgoing interface
Explanation: A default static route is used as a gateway of last resort to forward unknown destination traffic to a next hop/exit interface. The next-hop or exit interface is the destination to send traffic to on a network after the traffic is matched in a router. The route source is the location a route was learned from.
62. Which statement describes an extended star topology?
- End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn connects to other central intermediate devices.
- End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central intermediate device.
- Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device.
- All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.
Explanation: In an extended star topology, central intermediate devices interconnect other star topologies.
63. A network technician is attempting to connect an older device to a FastEthernet port on a Cisco switch. The technician has manually configured the device to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the device. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excessive collisions are detected on the switch. What is the likely cause of this problem?
- The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
- There is a duplex mismatch between the device and switch port.
- The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the device NIC.
- The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.
Explanation: Duplex mismatch is one of the most common causes of performance issues on 10/100 Mbps Ethernet links. It occurs when one port on the link operates at half-duplex while the other port operates at full-duplex
64. How do goodput, throughput, and bandwidth relate to network data transmissions?
- Goodput is always lower than throughput, which is generally lower than bandwidth.
- Throughput is always lower than bandwidth, which is generally lower than goodput.
- Goodput is always lower than bandwidth, which is generally lower than throughput.
- Throughput is always lower than goodput, which is generally lower than bandwidth.
Explanation: Bandwidth is the capacity at which a medium can carry data, so it is always higher than throughput and goodput. Goodput is throughput minus traffic overhead for establishing sessions, acknowledgments, encapsulation, and retransmitted bits, so it is always lower than throughput.
65. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
- create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
- provide physical addressing to the devices
- determine the path packets take through the network
- control data access to the media
Explanation: The OSI physical layer provides the means to transport the bits that make up a frame across the network media. This layer accepts a complete frame from the data link layer and encodes it as a series of signals that are transmitted to the local media.
66. A user calls the help desk to report a workstation problem. Which three questions would produce the most helpful information for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
- If you received an error message, what was it?
- What changes have you made to your workstation?
- Do you have the warranty for your workstation?
- What operating system version is running on your workstation?
- Have you used a network monitoring tool on your workstation?
- Have you performed a backup recently?
Explanation: In troubleshooting, the first step is to gather information related to the problem. One way to gather information is to ask questions of the individual who reported the problem as well as any other affected users. Questions should include end user experiences, observed symptoms, error messages, and information about recent configuration changes to devices or applications.
67. A customer called the cable company to report that the Internet connection is unstable. After trying several configuration changes, the technician decided to send the customer a new cable modem to try. What troubleshooting technique does this represent?
- top-down
- bottom-up
- substitution
- divide-and-conquer
Explanation: During troubleshooting, when the problem seems to be caused by a defective hardware, one approach is to replace the suspected hardware with a known good one. While not necessarily locating the problem, this technique can save time and quickly restore system functionality.
68. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type.
Explanation: Options matched to the correct selection.
| Link-Local | Multicast | Global Unicast |
|---|---|---|
| FE80:0:56BA:FFEE:A0B4:47FF:FE36:532B | FF02::2 | 2001:DB8:10::12 |
| FE80::1 | FF02::1:FF3A:25C9 | 2001:DB8:A1:0B:C78::1 |
69. A laptop cannot connect to a wireless access point. Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken first? (Choose two.)
- Ensure that the wireless NIC is enabled.
- Ensure that the laptop antenna is attached.
- Ensure that the wireless SSID is chosen.
- Ensure that the correct network media is selected.
- Ensure that the NIC is configured for the proper frequency.
Explanation: A wireless laptop normally does not have an antenna attached unless a repair has recently been implemented. If the wireless NIC is enabled, the correct media, radio, will be used. When the NIC detects an access point, the correct frequency is automatically used.
70. When troubleshooting network problems, where would a network administrator find the configuration information, such as the computer names and the IP addresses that are used?
- physical topology diagram
- DHCP server
- DNS server
- logical topology diagram
Explanation: A logical topology usually contains relevant network configuration information, such as the following:
Device names
Device IP addressing
Network designations
Configuration information
71. A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
- POST occurred normally.
- The boot process was interrupted.
- There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
- A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
- The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.
Explanation: A switch booting to the Switch> prompt indicates that the switch booted normally. This means a the switch successfully completed POST full version of the Cisco IOS was loaded.
72. What are two advantages of using fiber-optic cabling to interconnect devices? (Choose two.)
- Fiber-optic cable is immune from EMI and RFI.
- Fiber-optic cables can extend several miles.
- Fiber-optic cables use extra shielding to protect copper wires.
- Fiber-optic cables are easy to install..
- Fiber-optic cables are commonly found in both homes and small businesses.
Explanation: Fiber-optic cables provide immunity to both EMI and RFI and a single cable can extend for several miles before regeneration is needed.
73. Which type of network cable contains multiple copper wires and uses extra shielding to prevent interference?
- STP
- UTP
- fiber-optic
- coax
Explanation: Shielded twisted-pair (STP) cables contain additional shielding and is commonly used when electromagnetic interference (EMI) or radio frequency interference (RFI) would negatively affect the data communication crossing a network cable.
74. Refer to the exhibit. An IT consulting firm is helping a mid-sized marketing and advertising company for updating the campus network. Which three network design features are covered in the diagram? (Choose three.)
- flow of information in the network including addressing
- network devices that might be needed
- network segmentation
- data packet routing and protocol needs
- IP network subnetting consideration
- locations of network devices in the company
Explanation: The exhibit shows a logical topology diagram for the network design. The network design features shown in this diagram includes flow of information in the network including addressing, network devices that might be needed, and network segmentation provisioned through a router. The suggested IP address blocks are with the default subnet mask, no subnetting is required. While network devices are grouped logically in the diagram, the locations are not determined or indicated. Routing will be required, but there is no indication of which routing protocol should be used.
75. What is CSMA/CA on a network?
- an access method that is used by wireless technology to avoid duplicate SSIDs
- an access method that is used by any technology that has excessive collisions
- an access method that is used by wired Ethernet technology to avoid collisions
- an access method that is used by wireless technology to avoid collisions
Explanation: Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) is a wireless technology that allows only one device to transmit on a channel at a given moment and prevents collisions from occurring.
76. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer’s problem?
- improper IP address configuration on the host
- hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP
- bad cables or connections at the customer site
- failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses
Explanation: The nslookup command can be used to troubleshoot name resolution issues and to verify the current status of the name servers. The nslookup output identifies the default DNS server that is configured on the host. The utility has many options available for testing and verification of the DNS process.
77. For the second time in a week, workstations on a LAN are not able to log into a specific server. The technician fixed the problem the first time, but cannot remember the steps taken to solve it. What aspect of the troubleshooting process has the technician neglected?
- identifying the problem
- asking questions of end users
- documenting the troubleshooting process
- using structured techniques to solve a problem
Explanation: Proper documentation is a very important step in troubleshooting. The proper documentation can help troubleshoot the same or similar problems in the future.
78. What is the first action in the boot sequence when a switch is powered on?
- load the default Cisco IOS software
- load boot loader software
- low-level CPU initialization
- load a power-on self-test program
Explanation: The first action to take place when a switch is powered on is the POST or power-on self-test. POST performs tests on the CPU, memory, and flash in preparation for loading the boot loader.
79. Which string of hexadecimal numbers is an IPv6 GUA Interface ID probably created by using the EUI-64 process?
- 1272:23ff:eef0:1639
- fe99:47ff:fe75:cee0
- 52:74:fe:be:a8:7f
- 00:12:ff:eb:6b:40
Explanation: An easy way to identify that an address was probably created by using EUI-64 is the fffe located in the middle of the interface ID.
80. A technician suspects that a new switch is the source of a network problem. While troubleshooting, the technician notices a blinking green activity LED on some of the ports. What does this indicate?
- There are no cables plugged into the ports.
- The power supply is the source of the problem.
- The ports are operational and are receiving traffic.
- The ports are operational, but no traffic is flowing.
Explanation: Most devices will have activity LEDs, which are often called link lights. A normal condition is for these LEDs to flash indicating that traffic is flowing through the port. A solid light typically indicates a device is plugged in, but no traffic is flowing. No light can indicate that nothing is plugged into the port, that there is no power to the device, or there is a cabling issue.
81. Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component.
Explanation: Place the options in the following order:
| This network portion of the address is assigned by the provider. | global routing |
| This part of the address is used by an organization to identify subnets. | subnet ID |
| This part of the address is the equivalent to the host portion of an IPv4 address. | interface ID |
82. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
- 32
- 48
- 64
- 128
Explanation: An IPv6 address is split into a 64-bit prefix and a 64-bit interface ID.