CCNA v3 (200-125) 171 Questions – Certification Test Online latest

Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?

Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?

Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)

Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)

If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?

If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?

Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)

Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?

Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?

The left describes the types of cables, while the right describes the purposes of the cables. Drag the items on the left to the proper locations. (Not all items can be used.) (THE COMMUNITY SHARED THAT THERE IS ANOTHER OPTION SO STUDY ALL OF WHAT THIS CABLES ARE FOR)

Match the items on the left with appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration. Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity

A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?

Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?

What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch. 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?

A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA . Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?

Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path?

When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it receives a BPDU?

What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC encapsulation?

Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)

What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)

Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection to a remote device is established?

During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?

Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)

Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true? (Choose two.)

Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)

Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two.)

Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?

Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite branches?

Which function allows EIGRP peers to receive notice of implementing topology changes?

If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?

Which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a device? (Choose three)

What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model’s INTERNET layer?

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?

How to verify strong and secured SSH connection?

Which statement about RADIUS security is true?

If you are configuring syslog messages specifying ‘logging trap warning’, which log messages will the router send?

What is the correct command for floating static ipv6 route?

What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)

What IP SLA ICMP Echo measures?

What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three.)

How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)

What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?

What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)

How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.)

What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?

What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?

Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?

If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?

Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?

Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol?

Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?

If there are 3 hosts connected in one port of a switch and two other hosts connected in another port, how may collision domains are present on the router?

What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)

Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?

A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a switching decision?

Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate syslog messages with millisecond precision?

Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)

Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking mode?

Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?

In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.)

Which function of the IP SLAs ICMP jitter operation can you use to determine whether a VoIP issue is caused by excessive end-to-end time?

Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator’s attempt to telnet to the switch from host В fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?

Which two correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing

Which statement about LLDP is true?

If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IPaddresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)

Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server assigns?

Which three ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)

Refer to the exhibit The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?

Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?

Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?

What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two.)

Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?

Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?

What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router?

Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?

Which three characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?

Drag and drop the correct address space on the left to the ipv6 multicast feature or protocol on the right

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)

Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator’s next action be?

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?

Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands. Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)

Choose three

Which feature facilitate the tagging of a specific VLAN?

What does split horizon prevent?

Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ?

Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?

Which command is used to show the interface status of a router?

Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?

Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?

Which two statements are true about IPv6 Unique Local Addresses? (Choose Two.)

Which range represents the standard access list?

What to do when the router password was forgotten?

What is true about Cisco Discovery Protocol?

Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line?

How do you maintain security in multiple websites?

Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

interface fa0/0 ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224 router bgp XXXneighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.

What routing protocol use first-hand information?

What field is consist of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802.1Q?

What is new in HSRPv2?