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1. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit:
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)
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2. Question
1 points
Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
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3. Question
1 points
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
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4. Question
1 points
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
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5. Question
1 points
Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?
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6. Question
1 points
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
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7. Question
1 points
After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
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8. Question
1 points
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
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9. Question
1 points
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
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10. Question
1 points
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
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11. Question
1 points
Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?
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12. Question
1 points
What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)
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13. Question
1 points
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
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14. Question
1 points
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
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15. Question
1 points
Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
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16. Question
1 points
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
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17. Question
1 points
Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?
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18. Question
1 points
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
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19. Question
1 points
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
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20. Question
1 points
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?
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21. Question
1 points
Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.
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22. Question
1 points
What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?
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23. Question
1 points
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?
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24. Question
1 points
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
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25. Question
1 points
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?
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26. Question
1 points
What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?
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27. Question
1 points
In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?
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28. Question
1 points
Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?
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29. Question
1 points
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
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30. Question
1 points
Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)
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31. Question
1 points
Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?
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32. Question
1 points
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
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33. Question
1 points
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)
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34. Question
1 points
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?
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35. Question
1 points
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)
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36. Question
1 points
A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?
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37. Question
1 points
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
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38. Question
1 points
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)
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39. Question
1 points
Which command enables RSTP on a switch?
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40. Question
1 points
All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?
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41. Question
1 points
Which WAN protocol is being used?
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42. Question
1 points
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
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43. Question
1 points
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
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44. Question
1 points
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
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45. Question
1 points
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)
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46. Question
1 points
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?
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47. Question
1 points
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
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48. Question
1 points
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.
Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth?
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49. Question
1 points
How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
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50. Question
1 points
A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?
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51. Question
1 points
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
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52. Question
1 points
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
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53. Question
1 points
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
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54. Question
1 points
Which statement is true?
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55. Question
1 points
Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)
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56. Question
1 points
Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?
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57. Question
1 points
Based on the network shown in the graphic
Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?
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58. Question
1 points
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
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59. Question
1 points
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
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60. Question
1 points
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
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61. Question
1 points
The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator’s attempt to telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?
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62. Question
1 points
Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
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63. Question
1 points
What is one benefit of PVST+?
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64. Question
1 points
Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
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65. Question
1 points
How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?
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66. Question
1 points
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
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67. Question
1 points
The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
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68. Question
1 points
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
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69. Question
1 points
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
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70. Question
1 points
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
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71. Question
1 points
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
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72. Question
1 points
Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)
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73. Question
1 points
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
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74. Question
1 points
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)
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75. Question
1 points
Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified.
What will happen in this scenario?
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76. Question
1 points
A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
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77. Question
1 points
A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?
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78. Question
1 points
Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator’s next action be?
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79. Question
1 points
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?
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80. Question
1 points
Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?
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81. Question
1 points
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?
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82. Question
1 points
What are three features of the IPv6 protocol?
(Choose three.)
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83. Question
1 points
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
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84. Question
1 points
What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?
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85. Question
1 points
What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?
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86. Question
1 points
Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses?
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87. Question
1 points
What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
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88. Question
1 points
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
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89. Question
1 points
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
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90. Question
1 points
A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?
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91. Question
1 points
All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)
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92. Question
1 points
The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?
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93. Question
1 points
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
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94. Question
1 points
Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
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95. Question
1 points
What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?
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96. Question
1 points
Refer to the diagram.
All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)
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97. Question
1 points
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
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98. Question
1 points
The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)
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99. Question
1 points
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?
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100. Question
1 points
Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?
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101. Question
1 points
How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?
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102. Question
1 points
What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)
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103. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit
In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?
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104. Question
1 points
How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?
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105. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?
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106. Question
1 points
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
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107. Question
1 points
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
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108. Question
1 points
A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
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109. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)
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110. Question
1 points
Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?
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111. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?
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112. Question
1 points
Which IPv6 address is valid?
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113. Question
1 points
Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?
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114. Question
1 points
Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?
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115. Question
1 points
The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?
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116. Question
1 points
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
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117. Question
1 points
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
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118. Question
1 points
Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?
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119. Question
1 points
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
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120. Question
1 points
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?
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121. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
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122. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?
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123. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two.)
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124. Question
1 points
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
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- 5.
Incorrect -
125. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
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- 5.
Incorrect -
126. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the reason that the interface status is “administratively down, line protocol down”?
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- 6.
Incorrect -
127. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?
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- 4.
Incorrect -
128. Question
1 points
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
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Incorrect -
129. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit
The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on the 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?
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Incorrect -
130. Question
1 points
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
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Incorrect -
131. Question
1 points
Refer to the graphic.
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
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- 6.
Incorrect -
132. Question
1 points
What is a global command?
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Incorrect -
133. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
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Incorrect -
134. Question
1 points
A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
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Incorrect -
135. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?
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Incorrect -
136. Question
1 points
On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?
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- 4.
Incorrect -
137. Question
1 points
Which command displays CPU utilization?
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Incorrect -
138. Question
1 points
What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
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Incorrect -
139. Question
1 points
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
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Incorrect -
140. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
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Incorrect -
141. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three statements are true of these devices? (Choose three.)
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Incorrect -
142. Question
1 points
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
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Incorrect -
143. Question
1 points
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
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- 5.
Incorrect -
144. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
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Incorrect -
145. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional subnets?
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- 6.
Incorrect -
146. Question
1 points
Refer to the graphic.
A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
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- 6.
Incorrect -
147. Question
1 points
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
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- 6.
Incorrect -
148. Question
1 points
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
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Incorrect -
149. Question
1 points
Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
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Incorrect -
150. Question
1 points
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
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- 6.
Incorrect -
151. Question
1 points
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)
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- 6.
Incorrect -
152. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit
A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config command on the router. The network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration dialog as shown. What is the cause of the problem?
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Incorrect -
153. Question
1 points
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
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Incorrect -
154. Question
1 points
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
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Incorrect -
155. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit
Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
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Incorrect -
156. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
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Incorrect -
157. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?
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Incorrect -
158. Question
1 points
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
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Incorrect -
159. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?
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Incorrect -
160. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?
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Incorrect -
161. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?
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Incorrect -
162. Question
1 points
Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
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Incorrect -
163. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit
Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
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Incorrect -
164. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)
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Incorrect -
165. Question
1 points
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
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Incorrect -
166. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit
For what two reasons has the router loaded its IOS image from the location that is shown? (Choose two.)
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Incorrect -
167. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit
What can be determined about the router from the console output?
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Incorrect -
168. Question
1 points
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
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Incorrect -
169. Question
1 points
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
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Incorrect -
170. Question
1 points
A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?
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Incorrect -
171. Question
1 points
What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?
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Incorrect -
172. Question
1 points
Which command shows your active Telnet connections?
- 1.
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- 4.
Incorrect -
173. Question
1 points
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
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Incorrect -
174. Question
1 points
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?
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Incorrect -
175. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
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- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
176. Question
1 points
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.
Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity.
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Incorrect -
177. Question
1 points
Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server.
Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?
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Incorrect -
178. Question
1 points
A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
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Incorrect -
179. Question
1 points
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?
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- 6.
Incorrect -
180. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
What statement is true of the configuration for this network?
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- 4.
Incorrect -
181. Question
1 points
Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigning IP addresses by the DHCP server?
- 1.
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- 4.
Incorrect -
182. Question
1 points
What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)
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- 6.
Incorrect -
183. Question
1 points
On which options are standard access lists based?
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Incorrect -
184. Question
1 points
A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the Internet. Which ACL can be used?
- 1.
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- 4.
Incorrect -
185. Question
1 points
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?
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Incorrect -
186. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit
Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
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- 5.
Incorrect -
187. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?
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- 5.
Incorrect -
188. Question
1 points
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
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- 3.
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- 6.
Incorrect -
189. Question
1 points
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two.)
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- 6.
Incorrect -
190. Question
1 points
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)
- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
191. Question
1 points
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
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- 5.
Incorrect -
192. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow
only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the
port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with
successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show
commands.Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
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- 3.
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- 6.
Incorrect -
193. Question
1 points
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
194. Question
1 points
How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?
- 1.
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- 5.
Incorrect -
195. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet 172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended?
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Incorrect -
196. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102?
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Incorrect -
197. Question
1 points
Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?
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- 5.
Incorrect -
198. Question
1 points
When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?
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Incorrect -
199. Question
1 points
Refer to exhibit.
A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of this failure?
- 1.
- 2.
- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
200. Question
1 points
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
201. Question
1 points
Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
202. Question
1 points
A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
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- 6.
Incorrect -
203. Question
1 points
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
- 1.
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- 5.
Incorrect -
204. Question
1 points
Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)
- 1.
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- 3.
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- 5.
Incorrect -
205. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when
this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
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- 6.
Incorrect -
206. Question
1 points
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco
switch?Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
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Incorrect -
207. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is the problem?
- 1.
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- 4.
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- 6.
Incorrect -
208. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)
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- 3.
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- 6.
Incorrect -
209. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit
An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?
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- 5.
Incorrect -
210. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
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- 6.
Incorrect -
211. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
- 1.
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- 6.
Incorrect -
212. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
- 1.
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Incorrect -
213. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit
HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what is the cause of this problem?
- 1.
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- 5.
Incorrect -
214. Question
1 points
Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three.)
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- 6.
Incorrect -
215. Question
1 points
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
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Incorrect -
216. Question
1 points
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
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- 4.
- 5.
Incorrect -
217. Question
1 points
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- 5.
Incorrect -
218. Question
1 points
What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?
- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
219. Question
1 points
What would be the effect of Issuing the command ip access-group 115 in on the s0/0/1 interface?
No host could connect to RouterC through s0/0/1.
- 1.
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Incorrect -
220. Question
1 points
The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows “PVC STATUS = INACTIVE”. What does this mean?
- 1.
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Incorrect -
221. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
In the Frame Relay network, which IP addresses would be assigned to the interfaces with point-to- point PVCs?
- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
222. Question
1 points
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?
- 1.
- 2.
- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
223. Question
1 points
Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?
- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
224. Question
1 points
At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?
- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
225. Question
1 points
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
- 1.
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- 3.
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- 5.
Incorrect -
226. Question
1 points
Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)
- 1.
- 2.
- 3.
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- 5.
Incorrect -
227. Question
1 points
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?
- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
228. Question
1 points
Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?
- 1.
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- 4.
Incorrect -
229. Question
1 points
RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0.
After reviewing the command output and graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
230. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown?
- 1.
- 2.
- 3.
- 4.
- 5.
Incorrect -
231. Question
1 points
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
- 1.
- 2.
- 3.
- 4.
Incorrect -
232. Question
1 points
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)
- 1.
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- 3.
- 4.
- 5.
- 6.
Incorrect -
233. Question
1 points
Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)
- 1.
- 2.
- 3.
- 4.
- 5.
Incorrect -
234. Question
1 points
Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is very slow. The network administrator suspects that the link is overloaded
Based on the partial output of the Router# show frame relay pvc command shown in the graphic, which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing congestion?
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235. Question
1 points
Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay link?
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236. Question
1 points
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following procedures are required to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
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237. Question
1 points
What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?
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238. Question
1 points
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)
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239. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement describes DLCI 17?
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240. Question
1 points
What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?
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241. Question
1 points
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
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242. Question
1 points
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
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243. Question
1 points
What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?
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244. Question
1 points
What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
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245. Question
1 points
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
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246. Question
1 points
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
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247. Question
1 points
What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)
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248. Question
1 points
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
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249. Question
1 points
Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)
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250. Question
1 points
A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)
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251. Question
1 points
What is the default Syslog facility level?
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252. Question
1 points
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?
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253. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?
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254. Question
1 points
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)
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255. Question
1 points
What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?
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256. Question
1 points
What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?
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257. Question
1 points
Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)
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258. Question
1 points
What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)
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259. Question
1 points
What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?
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260. Question
1 points
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?
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261. Question
1 points
What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?
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262. Question
1 points
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
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263. Question
1 points
What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.)
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264. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?
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265. Question
1 points
Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)
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266. Question
1 points
What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?
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267. Question
1 points
What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)
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268. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/3 to produce the given output?
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269. Question
1 points
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
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270. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?
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271. Question
1 points
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
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272. Question
1 points
A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?
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273. Question
1 points
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?
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274. Question
1 points
Refer to the exhibit.
If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?
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275. Question
1 points
What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?
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276. Question
1 points
Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?
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277. Question
1 points
Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)
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278. Question
1 points
What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?
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279. Question
1 points
Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose three)
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280. Question
1 points
What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)
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281. Question
1 points
Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?
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282. Question
1 points
What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?
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283. Question
1 points
What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?
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284. Question
1 points
Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?
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285. Question
1 points
In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?
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Cisco 200-120 Exam Answer ( CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate – Version: 18.1)
286. A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?
1. the port-channel 1 interface
2. the highest number member interface
3. all member interface
4. the lowest number member interface
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