Cisco 200-120 Exam Test Online ( CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate – Version: 18.1)

Refer to the exhibit:

What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?

In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

Which WAN protocol is being used?

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)

Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.

Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth?

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?

Which statement is true?

Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?

Based on the network shown in the graphic

Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator’s attempt to telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

What is one benefit of PVST+?

Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)

How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?

What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified.

What will happen in this scenario?

A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?

A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?

Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator’s next action be?

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol?

(Choose three.)

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

What is known as “one-to-nearest” addressing in IPv6?

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?

Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses?

What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?

All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

Refer to the diagram.

All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?

Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)

Refer to the exhibit

In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)

A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?

Refer to the exhibit.

Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?

Which IPv6 address is valid?

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?

The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)

Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?

Refer to the exhibit.

The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two.)

What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the reason that the interface status is “administratively down, line protocol down”?

Refer to the exhibit.

When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

Refer to the exhibit

The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on the 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

Refer to the graphic.

R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)