CCNA 200-125 Drag and Drop Questions Full

CCNA 200-125 Drag and Drop Questions Full
4.6 (15) votes

QUESTION 1

Drag each category on the left to its corresponding router output line on the right.
Each router output line is in the result of a show ip interface command.
Not all categories are used.

Correct Answer:

switch access port to router -> straight-through
switch to switch -> crossover
pc com port to switch -> rollover
router serial to router serial -> DCE/DTE

QUESTION 2

Drag each category on the left to its corresponding router output line on the right.
Each router output line is in the result of a show ip interface command.
Not all categories are used.

Correct Answer:

 Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up -> port operational
 Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down -> Layer 2 problem
 Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down -> Layer 1 problem
 Serial0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down -> port disabled

QUESTION 3

A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based on the layered approach to troubleshooting and beginning with the lowest layer. Follow the guide and drag the content to relevant modules

Correct Answer:

Step 1 -> Verify Ethernet cable connection
Step 2 -> Verify NIC operation
Step 3 -> Verify IP configuration
Step 4 -> Verify URL

QUESTION 4

Match the items on the left with appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Correct Answer:

Network Layer:
-> packets
-> IP address
-> routing
Transport Layer:
-> udp
-> segments
-> windowing

QUESTION 5

Correct Answer:

FF01::1 ————— All nodes (node-local)
FF01::2 ————— All routers (node-local)
FF02::1 ————— All nodes (link-local)
FF02::2 ————— All routers (link-local)
FF02::5 ————— OSPFv3 routers
FF02::6 ————— OSPFv3 designated routers
FF02::9 ————— Routing Information Protocol (RIPng)
FF02::A ————— EIGRP routers
FF02::B ————— Mobile agents
FF02::C ————— SSDP
FF02::D ————— All PIM routers
FF05::2 ————— All routers (site-local)
Extra Choice ————— DHCP servers/relay agents (FF05::1:3)

QUESTION 6

Drag the security features on the left to the specific risks they protect against on the right. (not all options are used)

Correct Answer:

VTY password -> remote access to device console
console password -> access to the console 0 line
access-group -> access to connect networks or resources
service password-encryption -> viewing of passwords
enable secret -> access to privileged mode

QUESTION 7

Correct Answer:

Radius :
-> UDP
-> combines authentication and authorization
-> encrypts only the password
-> multi-vendors
Tacacs+ :
-> Encrypts the entire body
-> proprietary
-> TCP
-> Separate AAA

QUESTION 8

Correct Answer:

RIPV1 :
-> classful
-> Non support authentication
-> Updates send in broadcast
-> Non support VLSM
RIPV2 :
-> classless
-> support authentication
-> Updates send in multicast
-> Support VLSM

QUESTION 9

Correct Answer:

cache -> Local database of address mappings that improves name-resolution performance
DNS -> Service that maps hostnames to IP addresses
domain -> Component of a URL that indicates the location or organization type, such as.com or .edu
name resolver -> In response to client requests, queries a name server for IP address information
no ip domain-lookup -> Disables DNS services on a cisco device

QUESTION 10

Correct Answer:

multitenancy -> One or more clients can be hosted with the same physical or virtual infrastructure
scalability -> Resources can be added and removes as need to support current workload and task
Workload movement -> Task can be migrated to different physical locations to increase efficiency or reduce cost
On-demand -> Resources are dedicated only when necessary instead of on a permanent basis
resiliency -> Task and data residing on a failed server can be seamlessly migrated to other physical resource

QUESTION 11

Correct Answer:

Stores log massages in RAM -> buffered logging
Provides local access to a device -> console
Stores log massages externally -> syslog server logging
Accepts incoming connections over vty lines -> terminal
Display logging information during a terminal session-> terminal monitor

QUESTION 12

Correct Answer:

Dynamic Routing
-> Support load balancing with no specific configuration
-> Able to select the best path in response to network changes
-> Provides better scalability in a large infrastructure.
Static Routing
-> Supports floating routes
-> Allows the administrator to manage device individually when needed
-> Provides granular control over routing.

QUESTION 13

Correct Answer:

RBAC -> Call to the APIC-EM API from a library
JSON -> Data-structure format that passes parameters for API calls
REST ->Northbound API
OpenFlow -> Southbound API
HTTPS -> Token-based security mechanism

QUESTION 14

Drag and drop the PPPoE packet type on the left to the corresponding description on the right.

Correct Answer:

1 -> PADI
2 -> PADO
3 -> PADR
4 -> PADS
5 -> PADT

QUESTION 15

Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.

Correct Answer:

Easy upgrade process -> Controller image auto deployed to access Points
Optimized user performance -> Controller uses loadbalancing to maximize throughput
Dynamic RF Feature -> Access points auto adjust signal strenght
Easy Deployment Process -> Controller prvides centralized managmt of users & vlans

QUESTION 16

Correct Answer:

Copper
– > 10BASE-T
– > 100BASE-TX
– > 10GBASE-T
Fiber
– > 10GBASE-LR
– > 1000BASE-LX
– > 1000BASE-SC

QUESTION 17

Correct Answer:

Control Plane
– > Filtering
– > Routing state exchange
– > Establishes telnet sessions
Data Plane
– > Qos
– > Device access
– > Data encapsulation

QUESTION 18

Correct Answer:

TCP
-> Sends Transmission in Sequence
-> Transmits packet as stream
-> Uses a lower transmission rate to ensure reliability
UDP
-> Transmists packets individually
-> Transmissions include an 8-byte header
-> Uses higher transmission rate to support latency-sensitive apps

QUESTION 19

Correct Answer:

Dynamic mac address -> Mac that is learned by the switch through normal traffic
Mac address table -> Associates a learned mac address with its connected interface
Mac aging -> Removing an inactive mac after a specified time
Mac ACL -> Feature that determines whether incoming traffic will be allowed
Mac learning -> Adding a previously unknown mac into the address table
Static mac -> Mac address that remains in the mac address table after reboot

QUESTION 20

Correct Answer:

Discover to server -> initializing
from Offer from server -> selecting
Request to server -> requesting
from Ack from server -> bound
from same dhcp server -> renewing
from different dhcp server -> rebinding

QUESTION 21

Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.

Correct Answer:

BGP Speakers -> Device that running BGP
BGP peer -> Neighbor that share the same AS number as a the local device
eBGP peer -> Neighbor that located outside of AD domain of the local device
autonomous system number -> Value that identify an AD
Prefix -> Value that is advertise with network keyword

QUESTION 22

Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.

Correct Answer:

Autonomous system ->separate network operating within one administrative domain
external BGP ->relationship between peers in Differert autonomous system
Internal BGP ->relationship between peers in Same autonomous system
Prefix ->block of IP addresses
Private AS range ->Value between 64, 512 and 65, 535
Public AS range ->Value between 1 and 64, 511

QUESTION 23

Drag and drop the values in a routing table from the left onto the correct meaning on the right.

Correct Answer:

Route source ->code that indicates the method by which the router learned the route
Metric ->value used by the router to determine the preferred route
Administrative distance ->indicator of the trustworthiness of the route
Next hop ->network to which the router forwards packets on the associated route
Destination network ->remote network address

QUESTION 24

Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.

Correct Answer:

BPDU guard -> disables the switch port when it receives a BPDU
BPDU filter -> drops all BPDU received on the switch port
UplinkFast -> enables quick convergence when a direct link to a non-end device fails
PortFast -> forces the switch to transition directly from the blocking state to the forwarding state
Root guard -> prevents the port from becoming a locked port

QUESTION 25

Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.

Correct Answer:

ip dns server -> enables the DNS server on the device
ip domain list -> specifies a sequence of domain names
ip domain lookup sourse interface -> enables DNS lookup on an individual interface
ip domain name -> specifies the default domain to append to unqualified host names
ip host -> statically maps an IP address to a hostname
ip name -> identifies a DNS server to provide lookup services

QUESTION 26

Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.

Correct Answer:

CAR -> policies traffic based on its bandwidth allocation
Best effort -> service level that provides basic connectivity without differentiation
Soft Qos -> service level that provides preferred handling
Hard QoS -> service level that provides reserved network resources
PBR -> uses route maps to match traffic criteria
NBAR -> identification tool ideal for handling wed applications

QUESTION 27

Drag and drop the extended traceroute options from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Correct Answer:

Maximum time to live -> value that, when reached, terminates the traceroute command
Timestamp, verbose -> IP header options
Source address -> overrides the router selection of an outbound interface
Timeout -> sets the interval for which the probe waits for a response
Minimum time to live -> suppresses the display of known hops
numeric displa -> suppresses the display of hostnames

QUESTION 28

Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is exchanging packets with the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave RouterB interface Fa0/1 towards RouterA.
Drag the correct frame and packet addresses to their place in the table.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 29

Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is sending packets to the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave RouterA interface Fa0/0 towards RouterB.
Drag the correct frame and packet address to their place in the table.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 30

Correct Answer:

TCP
-> SMTP
-> Telnet
-> FTP
UDP
-> SNMP
-> DHCP
-> VoIP

QUESTION 31

Correct Answer:

FF01:1 -> multicast address
2000:10D8:0:0:B5AB:B00:52:734B -> unicast address
:: -> Unknown address
DB:FC:93:FF:FE:D8:05:0A -> modified EUI address

QUESTION 32

Correct Answer:

p-persistent -> access method used for wifi network
1-persistent -> access method used for ethernet network
CSMA/CD -> role that define the system define when a collision occure on a ethernet network
0-persistent -> access method used in the controller aria network
CSMA/CA -> role that define the system define when a collision occure on a wifi network

QUESTION 33

Match the description to the form of network communication. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
an audio-based medium that allows people to deliver their recordings to a wide audience –> podcast
interactive websites where people create and share user-generated content with friends and family –> social media
web pages that groups of people can edit and view together –> wiki
real-time communication between two or more people –> instant messaging

QUESTION 34

Match each characteristic to its corresponding internet conectivity type. (Not all options are used)


Place the options in the following order:
high bandwidth connection that runs over telephone line -> DSL
typically has very low bandwidth -> dialup telephone
not suited for heavily wooded areas -> satellite
uses coaxial cable as a medium -> cable

Explain:
DSL is an always-on, high bandwidth connection that runs over telephone lines. Cable uses the same coaxial cable that carries television signals into the home to provide Internet access. Dialup telephone is much slower than either DSL or cable, but is the least expensive option for home users because it can use any telephone line and a simple modem. Satellite requires a clear line of sight and is affected by trees and other obstructions. None of these typical home options use dedicated leased lines such as T1/E1 and T3/E3.

QUESTION 35

Match the definition to the security goal. (Not all options are used.)


ensuring confidentiality -> only the intended recipients can access and read the data
maintaining integrity -> the assurance that the information has not been altered during transmission
ensuring availability -> the assurance of timely and reliable access to data

Explain:
Data integrity verifies that the data has not been altered on the trip between the sender and the receiver. A field calculated by the sender is recalculated and verified to be the same by the receiver. Passwords and authorization maintain control over who has access to personal data. Redundant devices and links attempt to provide 99.999% availability to users. Integrity is made possible by requiring validation of the sender, not the destination. VPNs are not the only secure method by which data can be transferred confidentially.

QUESTION 36

An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be entered? (Not all options are used.)



Place the options in the following order:
– not scored –
second mode -> privileged EXEC mode  
final mode -> line configuration mode 
third mode -> global configuration mode
first mode -> user EXEC mode

Explain:
The configuration mode that the administrator first encounters is user EXEC mode. After the enable command is entered, the next mode is privileged EXEC mode. From there, the configure terminal command is entered to move to global configuration mode. Finally, the administrator enters the line console 0 command to enter the mode in which the configuration will be entered.

QUESTION 37

Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)


Answer

Place the options in the following order:
completes abbreviated commands and parameters -> Tab
displays the next screen -> space bar
scrolls backwards through previously entered commands -> Up Arrow
– not scored –
provides context-sensitive help -> ?
aborts commands such as trace and ping -> Ctrl-Shift-6

Explain:
The shortcuts with their functions are as follows:
– Tab – Completes the remainder of a partially typed command or keyword
– Space bar – displays the next screen
– ? – provides context-sensitive help
– Up Arrow – Allows user to scroll backward through former commands
– Ctrl-C – cancels any command currently being entered and returns directly to privileged EXEC mode
– Ctrl-Shift-6 – Allows the user to interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute

QUESTION 38

Match the difinitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts.


Tab -> Completes abbreviated commands and parameters
Ctrl-R -> returns directly to the privileged EXEC mode
Up Arrow -> scrolls backwards through previously entered commands
Ctrl-Z -> cancels any command currently being entered and returns directly to privileged EXEC mode
Ctrl-C -> Redisplays, on a new line, the command currently being typed

QUESTION 39

Match the description to the common IOS CLI access method.


Console port
-> It displays startup, debugging, and error messages by default.
-> It can be used to restore an out-of-box configuration on a switch or router.
Virtual interface
-> It allows access throught use of Telnet or SSH protocols.
-> It requires an active network connection.
AUX port
-> It connects throught dialup connections
-> It is not supported on Catalyst switch devices

QUESTION 40

Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.)



ISOC -> The organization promotes the open development, evolution, and use of the internet throughout the world
ISO -> This organization is the largest developer of international standars in the world for a wide variety of products and services. It is know for its Open System Interconection (OSI) reference model.
IANA -> This organization is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address allocation, domain name management, and protocol identifiers

Explain:
The EIA is an international standards and trade organization for electronics organizations. It is best known for its standards related to electrical wiring, connectors, and the 19-inch racks used to mount networking equipment.

QUESTION 41

Match the protocol function to the description while taking into consideration that a network client is visiting a web site. (Not all options are used.)



Place the options in the following order:
governing the way a web server and a web client interact -> application protocol
taking the segments from transport protocol, encapsulating them into packets, and assigning them with appropriate addresses -> internet protocol
preparing packets to be transmitted over the network media -> network access protocol
– not scored –
managing the individual conversations between web servers and web clients -> transport protocol

Explain:
When a web client visits a web server, several network communication protocols are involved. These different protocols work together to ensure that the messages are received and understood by both parties. These protocols include the following:
Application Protocol – governing the way a web server and a web client interact
Transport Protocol – managing the individual conversations between web servers and web clients
Internet Protocol – taking the formatted segments from the transport protocol, encapsulating them into packets, assigning them the appropriate addresses, and delivering them across the best path to the destination host
Network Access Protocol – preparing packets to be transmitted over the network media
Network Time Protocol is used to synchronize clocks between computer systems. It is not involved in this case.

QUESTION 42

Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.)



Place the options in the following order:
– not scored –
message encoding -> the process of converting information from one format into another acceptable for transmission
message encapsulation -> the process of placing one message format inside another message format
– not scored –
message sizing -> the process of breaking up a long message into individual pieces before being sent over the network

QUESTION 43

Match the steps to the physical layer operations that occur when data is sent from one node and received at another node.


Sort elements
The physical layer encodes the frames -> Step 1*
The physical layer creates the signals that represent the bits in each frame -> Step 2*
The signals are sent on the media one at a time. -> Step 3
The physical layer retrieves the individual signals from the media -> Step 4
The physical layer restores the individual signals to their bit representations -> Step 5*

QUESTION 44

Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)

Sort elements
cut-through (A) -> low latency (A)
cut-through (B) -> may forward runt frames (B)
cut-through (C) -> begins forwarding when the destination address is received (C)
store-and-forward (D) -> always stores the entire frame (D)
store-and-forward (E) -> checks the CRC before forwarding (E)
store-and-forward (F) -> checks the frame length before forwarding (F)

Explain:
A store-and-forward switch always stores the entire frame before forwarding, and checks its CRC and frame length. A cut-through switch can forward frames before receiving the destination address field, thus presenting less latency than a store-and-forward switch. Because the frame can begin to be forwarded before it is completely received, the switch may transmit a corrupt or runt frame. All forwarding methods require a Layer 2 switch to forward broadcast frames.

QUESTION 45

The binary number 0000 1010 can be expressed as “A” in hexadecimal.
Match the seven fields of an Ethernet frame to their respective contents. (Not all options are used.)


Sort elements
Start Frame Delimiter -> Field 2*
Source MAC Address -> Field 4*
Encapsulated Data -> Field 6*
Preamble -> Beginning of frame – Field 1*
Destination MAC Address -> Field 3*
Length/Type -> Field 5*
Frame Check Sequence -> End of frame – Field 7

QUESTION 46

Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)

Answer

login -> R1(config-line)#
service password-encryption -> R1(config)#
ip address 192.168.4.4 225.255.255.0 -> R1(config-if)#
copy running-config startup-config -> R1#
enable -> R1>

Explain:
The enable command is entered in R1> mode. The login command is entered in R1(config-line)# mode. The copy running-config startup-config command is entered in R1# mode. The ip address 192.168.4.4 255.255.255.0 command is entered in R1(config-if)# mode. The service password-encryption command is entered in global configuration mode.

QUESTION 47

Match the configuration mode with the command that is available in that mode. (Not all options are used.)


Sort elements
enable -> R1>
copy running-config startup-config -> R1#
login -> R1(config-line)#
interface fastethernet 0/0 -> R1(config)#

QUESTION 48

Match field names to the IP header where they would be found. (Not all options are used)


Sort elements
IP v4 Header (A) -> Flags (A)
IP v4 Header (B) -> Total Length (B)
IP v6 Header (C) ->Traffic Class (C)
IP v6 Header (D) -> Flow Label (D)

QUESTION 49

Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)


Answer

a private address -> 172.19.20.5
a loopback address -> 127.0.0.1
an experimental address -> 240.2.6.255
a TEST-NET address -> 192.0.2.123
a link-local address -> 169.254.1.5

Explain:
Link-Local addresses are assigned automatically by the OS environment and are located in the block 169.254.0.0/16. The private addresses ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. TEST-NET addresses belong to the range 192.0.2.0/24. The addresses in the block 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.254 are reserved as experimental addresses. Loopback addresses belong to the block 127.0.0.0/8.

QUESTION 50

Refer to the exhibit. Consider a datagram that originates on the PC and that is destined for the web server. Match the IP addresses and port numbers that are in that datagram to the description. (Not all options are used.)


192.168.1.2 -> source IP address
192.168.2.2 -> destination IP address
2578 -> source port number
80 -> destination port number

QUESTION 51

Match the characteristic to the protocol category. (Not all options are used.)


TCP -> window size
TCP -> 3-way handshake
UDP -> connectionless
UDP -> best for VoIP
Both UDP and TCP -> checksum
Both UDP and TCP -> port number

QUESTION 52

Match the characteristics to the correct type of fiber. (Not all options are used.)


Place de options in the following order.
Multimode Fiber
-> LED as light source*
-> several paths of light into the fiber*
-> generally used with LANs*
Single-mode Fiber
-> only one ray of light into the fiber*
-> generally used for campus backbone*
-> laser as light source*

Explain:
Single-mode fiber uses a laser as the light source. Its small core produces a single straight path for light and it is commonly used with campus backbones. Multimode fiber uses LEDs as the light source. Its larger core allows for multiple paths for the light. It is commonly used with LANs.

QUESTION 53

Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)


Answer

192.168.1.32/27 -> 192.168.1.48
192.168.1.64/27 -> 192.168.1.68
192.168.1.96/27 -> 192.168.1.121

Explain:
Subnet 192.168.1.32/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.33 – 192.168.1.62 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.63
Subnet 192.168.1.64/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.65 – 192.168.1.94 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.95
Subnet 192.168.1.96/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.97 – 192.168.1.126 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.127

QUESTION 54

Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.) From right to left, network A has 100 hosts connected to the router on the right. The router on the right is connected via a serial link to the router on the left. The serial link represents network D with 2 hosts. The left router connects network B with 50 hosts and network C with 25 hosts.

Question

Answer

Network A -> 192.168.0.0/25
Network B -> 192.168.0.128/26
Network C -> 192.168.0.192/27
Network D -> 192.168.0.224/30

Explain:
Network A needs to use 192.168.0.0 /25 which yields 128 host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.128 /26 which yields 64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.192 /27 which yields 32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.224 /30 which yields 4 host addresses.

QUESTION 55

Match each IPv4 address to the appropriate address category. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order:
Host address [A] 192.168.100.161/25 [A]
Host address [B] 203.0.113.100/24 [B]
Host address [C] 10.0.50.10/30 [C]
Network address [D] 192.168.1.80/29 [D]
Network address [E] 172.110.12.64/28 [E]
Network address [F] 10.10.10.128/25 [F]
Broadcast address [G] 10.0.0.159/27 [G]
Broadcast address [H] 192.168.1.191/26 [H]

QUESTION 56

Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.)


192.31.18.123 -> a legacy class C address
198.256.2.6 -> an invalid IPv4 address
64.100.3.5 -> a legacy class A address
224.2.6.255 -> a legacy class D address
128.107.5.1 -> a legacy class B address

QUESTION 57

Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used)



Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer network
[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis
peer-to-peer aplication
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required

Explain:
Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations.

QUESTION 58

Match the functions to the name of the application. (Not all options are used)



Place the options in the following order:
— not scored —
DHCP -> dynamically assigns IP address to clients
DNS -> maps URLs to numerical addresses
IMAP -> allows viewing of messages on email clients
HTTP -> displays web pages
SMTP -> sends email messages
— not scored —

QUESTION 59

Match the DNS record type to the corresponding description. (Not all options are used)


Place the options in the following order:
end device address -> A
– not scored –
authoritative name server -> NS
canonical name -> CNAME
mail exchange record -> MX

QUESTION 60

Match the purpose with its DHCP message type. (Not all options are used)


Place the options in the following order:
a message that is used to identify the explicit server and lease offer to accept -> DHCPREQUEST
a message that is used to locate any available DHCP server on a network -> DHCPDISCOVER
– not scored –
a message that is used to suggest a lease to a client -> DHCPOFFER
a message that is used to acknowledge that the lease is successful -> DHCPACK

QUESTION 61

Match the type of information security threat to the scenario. (Not all options are used)



Place the options in the following order.
installing virus code to destroy surveillance recordings for certain days -> data loss
pretending to be someone else by using stolen personal information to apply for a credit card ->identity theft
preventing userd from accessing a website by sending a large number of link requests in a short period -> disruption of service
obtaining trade secret documents illegally -> information theft

Explain:
After an intruder gains access to a network, common network threats are as follows:
Information theft
Identity theft
Data loss or manipulation
Disruption of service
Cracking the password for a known username is a type of access attack.

QUESTION 62

Match the phases to the functions during the boot up process of a Cisco router. (Not all options are used)



Place the options in the following order.
— not scored —
locale and load the Cisco IOS software -> phase 2
locate and load the startup configuration file -> phase 3
perform the POST and load the bootstrap program -> phase 1

Explain:
There are three major phases to the bootup process of a Cisco router:
Perform the POST and load the bootstrap program.
Locate and load the Cisco IOS software.
Locate and load the startup configuration file
If a startup configuration file cannot be located, the router will enter setup mode by displaying the setup mode prompt.

QUESTION 63

Match the descriptions to the terms. (Not all options are used)

Answer

Place the options in the following order.
— not scored —
CLI -> users interact with the operating system by typing commands
GUI -> enables the user to interact with the operating system by pointing and clicking
kernel -> the part of the OS that interacts directly with the device hardware
shell -> the part of the operating system that interfaces with applications and the user

Explain:
A GUI, or graphical user interface, allows the user to interact with the operating system by pointing and clicking at elements on the screen. A CLI, or command-line interface, requires users to type commands at a prompt in order to interact with the OS. The shell is the part of the operating system that is closest to the user. The kernel is the part of the operating system that interfaces with the hardware.

QUESTION 64

Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting network architecture. (Not all options are used)

Answer

Place the options in the following order.
Protect the network from unauthorized access. -> security
Provide redundant links and devices. -> fault tolerance
— not scored —
Expand the network without degrading the service for existing users. -> scalability
— not scored —

QUESTION 65

Match the functions with the corresponding OSI layer. (Not all options are used)

Answer

Place the options in the following order.
Application layer
-> HTTP and FTP
-> end user program functionality
Presentation layer
-> compression
-> common format
Session layer
-> dialog maintenance

QUESTION 66

Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used)

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 010 (v5.02, 2015)

physical topology diagram:
-> cables that connect rooms to wiring closets
-> desktop PC in a classroom
logical topology diagram:
-> IP address of a server
-> a switch that is located in a classroom

QUESTION 67

Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.

CCNA 1 Practice Final Answer 011 (v5.02, 2015)

Copper Cables
-> horizontal cabling structure
-> desktop PCs in a enterprise office
Fiber Optic
-> backbone cabling in an enterprise
-> long-haul networks
Wireless
-> guest access in a coffee shop
-> waiting rooms in a hospital

QUESTION 68

Question as presented:


hardware threat -> poor cabling of the network infrastructure
electrical threat -> brownouts
environmental threat -> physical damage to routers
maintenance threat

QUESTION 69

Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (not all options are used)

Answer

user EXEC mode
-> limited number of basic monitoring commands
-> the first entrance into the CLI of an IOS device
privileged EXEC mode
-> accessed by entering the enable command
-> identified by a prompt ending with the # character
global configuration mode
-> changes made affect the operation of the device as a whole
-> accessed by entering the configure terminal command

QUESTION 70

Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used)

packets with destination of 172.17.6.15 -> FastEthernet0/0
packets with destination of 172.17.14.8 -> FastEthernet0/1
packets with destination of 172.17.12.10 -> FastEthernet1/0
packets with destination of 172.17.10.5 -> FastEthernet1/1
packets with destination of 172.17.8.20 -> Serial0/0/0

QUESTION 71

Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used)


Link-Local
-> FE80:0:56BA:FFEE:A0b4:47FF:FE36::532B
-> FE80::1
Multicast
-> FF02::2
-> FF02::1:FF3A:25C9
Global Unicast
-> 2001:DB8:10::12
-> 2001:DB8:A1:0B:C78::1

QUESTION 71

Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

POP
-> does not require a centralized backup solution
-> mail is deleted as it is downloaded
-> desirable for an ISP or large business
IMAP
-> downloads copies of email messages to the client
-> original messages must be manually deleted
-> requires a larger amount of disk space

QUESTION 72

Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols.

CCNA2 Pretest Exam v5.03 Question 001

Answer

CCNA2 Pretest Exam v5.03 Answer 001

TCP
-> FTP
-> HTTP
-> SMTP
UDP
-> DHCP
-> TFTP

QUESTION 73

Refer to the exhibit. Match the description with the routing table entries. (Not all options are used)


Graphic contains output of show ip route as follows:

R3# show ip route 
    172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 3 subnets
C 172.16.0.0 is directly connected, Serial0/1/0
D 172.16.1.0 [90/21024000] via 172.16.0.1, 00:22:15, Serial0/1/0
C 172.16.2.0 is directly connected, Serial0/1/0
10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets
S 10.2.0.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
C 10.3.0.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0


Question as presented:

route source protocol = D (which is EIGRP)
destination network = 10.3.0.0
metric = 21024000
administrative distance = 1
next hop = 172.16.2.2
route timestamp = 00:22:15

QUESTION 74

Match the functions to the corresponding layers. (Not all options are used)

Answer

access layer
-> represents the network edge
-> provides network access to the user
distribution layer
-> implements network access policy
-> establishes Layer 3 routing boundaries
core layer
-> provides high-speed backbone connectnity
-> functions as an aggregator for all the campus blocks

QUESTION 75

Match the borderless switched network guideline description to the principle. (Not all options are used)

Answer

convergence
flexibility -> allows intelligent traffic load sharing by using all network resources
hierarchical -> facilitates understanding the role of each device at every tier, simplifies deployment, operation, management, and reduces fault domains at every tier
modularity -> allows seamless network expansion and integrated service enablement on an on-demand basis
resiliency -> satisfies user expectations for keeping the network always on

QUESTION 76

Match the forwarding characteristic to its type. (Not all options are used)

Answer

cut-through
-> appropriate for high pertormance computing applications
-> forwarding process can begin after receiving the destination address
-> may forward invalid frames
store-and-forward
-> error checking before forwarding
-> forwarding process only begins after receiving the entire frame
-> only forwards valid frames

QUESTION 77

Match the step to each switch boot sequence description. (Not all options are used)

Answer

step 3 -> CPU register initializations
enter global configuration mode
step 1 -> execute POST
step 4 -> flash file system initialization
step 2 -> load the boot loader from ROM
step 5 -> load the IOS
step 6 -> transfer switch control to the IOS

QUESTION 78

Match the dynamic routing protocol component to the characteristic. (Not all options are used)



data structures
-> tables or databases that are stored in RAM
routing protocol messages
-> exchanges routing information and maintains accurate information about networks
algorithm
-> a finite list of steps used to determine the best path

The three components of dynamic routing protocols include:
Data structures
Routing protocol messages
Algorithm

QUESTION 79

Match the characteristic to the corresponding type of routing. (Not all options are used)



Place the options in the following order:

Static routing
-> typically used on stub networks
-> less routing overhead
Dynamic routing
-> new networks are added automatically to the routing table
-> best choice for large network

Both static and dynamic routing could be used when more than one router is involved. Dynamic routing is when a routing protocol is used. Static routing is when every remote route is entered manually by an administrator into every router in the network topology.

QUESTION 80

Match the IEEE 802.1Q standard VLAN tag field with the description. (Not all options are used)

Answer

User Priority -> a value that supports level or service implementation
Type -> a value for the tag protocol ID value
Canonical Format Identifier -> an identifier that enables Token Ring frames to be carried Ethenet links
a value for the application protocol of the user data in the frame
VLAN ID -> a VLAN number

QUESTION 81

Place the options in the following order:

permanent nontrunking mode
dynamic auto -> passively waits for the neighbor to initiate trunking
nonegotiate -> requires manual configuration of trunking or nontrunking
dynamic desirable -> actively attempts to convert the link to trunk
trunk -> permanent trunking mode

QUESTION 82

Identify the steps needed to configure a switch for SSH. The answer order does not matter. (Not all options are used)


Place the options in the following order:
[+] Create a local user.
[+] Generate RSA keys.
[+] Configure a domain name.
[+] Use the login local command.
[+] Use the transport input ssh command.
[+] Order does not matter within this group.

The login and password cisco commands are used with Telnet switch configuration, not SSH configuration.

QUESTION 83

Match the inter-VLAN routing method to the corresponding characteristic (not all options are used)


Place the options in the following order:
router-on-a-stick -> creation of subinterfaces
Layer 3 with SVIs -> routing at wire speeds
– not scored –
Layer 3 with routed ports -> need to issue the no switchport command

QUESTION 84

Match each statement with the example subnet and wildcard that it describes. (Not all options are used.)



Place the options in the following order:
192.168.15.65 255.255.255.240 ==> the first valid host address in a subnet
192.168.15.144 0.0.0.15 ==> subnetwork address of a subnet with 14 valid host addreses
host 192.168.15.2 ==> all IP address bits must match exactly
192.168.5.0 0.0.3.255 ==> hosts in a subnet with SM 255.255.252.0
192.168.3.64 0.0.0.7 ==> address with a subnet 255.255.255.248

Converting the wildcard mask 0.0.3.255 to binary and subtracting it from 255.255.255.255 yields a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0.
Using the host parameter in a wildcard mask requires that all bits match the given address.
192.168.15.65 is the first valid host address in a subnetwork beginning with the subnetwork address 192.168.15.64. The subnet mask contains 4 host bits, yielding subnets with 16 addresses.
192.168.15.144 is a valid subnetwork address in a similar subnetwork. Change the wildcard mask 0.0.0.15 to binary and subtract it from 255.255.255.255, and the resulting subnet mask is 255.255.255.240.
192.168.3.64 is a subnetwork address in a subnet with 8 addresses. Convert 0.0.0.7 to binary and subtract it from 255.255.255.255, and the resulting subnet mask is 255.255.255.248. That mask contains 3 host bits, and yields 8 addresses.

QUESTION 85

Match the features of link-state routing protocols to their advantages and disadvantages. (Not all options are used.)

Advantage
-> event-driven updates
-> building a topological map
-> fast convergence
Disadvantage
-> bandwidth consumption
-> memory usage
-> CPU processing time

QUESTION 86

Match the router protocol to the corresponding category. (Not all options are used)

Distance vector
-> RIOv2
-> EIGRP
Link state
-> OSPF
-> IS-IS

QUESTION 87

Order the steps of configuring a router as a DHCPv4 Server. (Not all options are used.)


Step 1 -> Exclude IP addresses
Step 2 -> Configure a DHCP pool
Step 3 -> Define the default gateway router

QUESTION 88

Match the description to the corresponding DHCPv6 server type. (Not all options are used.)



Place the options in the following order:
Stateless DHCPv6
-> enabled in RA messages with the ipv6 nd other-config-flag command
-> clients send only DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST messages to the server
-> enabled on the client with the ipv6 address autoconfig command
Stateful DHCPv6
-> the M flag is set to 1 in RA messages
-> uses the address command to create a pool of addresses for clients
-> enabled on the client with the ipv6 address dhcp command

QUESTION 89

Match the information to the command that is used to obtain the information. (Not all options are used)

Neighbor ID of 3.3.3.3 -> show ip ospf neighbor
Routing Process “ospf 10” with ID 1.1.1.1 -> show ip ospf
Routing Protocol is “ospf 10” -> show ip protocols
BW 1544 Kbit/sec -> show interface serial 0/0/0

QUESTION 90

By order of precedence, match the selection of router ID for an OSFP-enabled router to the possible router ID options. (Not all options are used)

Place the options in the following order:
Third precedence -> Loopback interface address 10.1.1.1
Fourth precedence -> Serial interface address 192.168.10.1
First precedence -> Configured router ID 1.1.1.1
Second precedence -> loopback interface IP address 172.16.1.1

QUESTION 91

Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found. -> adjacency database
This is the algorithm used by OSPF. -> Shortest Path First
All the routers are in the backbone area.-> Single-area OSPF
– not scored –
This is where you can find the topology table. -> link-state database
– not scored –

QUESTION 92

Match the OSPF state with the order in which it occurs. (Not all options are used)

Place the options in the following order:
second state -> Init state
– not scored –
seventh state -> Full state
fifth state -> Exchange state
first state -> Down state
fourth state -> Exstart state
– not scored –
third state -> Two-way state
sixth state -> Loading state

QUESTION 93

Match the steps with the actions that are involved when an internal host with IP address 192.168.10.10 attempts to send a packet to an external server at the IP address 209.165.200.254 across a router R1 that is running dynamic NAT. (Not all options are used.)

Answer:

Step 1 -> The host sends packets that request a connection to the server at the address 209.165.200.254
Step 2 -> R1 checks the NAT configuration to determine if this packet should be translated
Step 3 -> If there is no translation entry for this IP address, R1 determines that the source address 192.168.10.10 must be translated
Step 4 -> R1 selects an available global address from the dynamic address pool
Step 5 -> R1 replaces the address 192.168.10.10 with a translated inside global address

QUESTION 94

Refer to the exhibit. Match the components of the IOS image name to their description. (Not all options are used)



universalk9 -> specifying the feature set
1 -> minor release number
mz -> where the image runs and if the file is compressed
c1900 -> platform on which the image runs
authentication type
M4 -> maintanence release and rebuild number
4 -> new feature release number
bin -> file extension
15 -> major release number

QUESTION 95

Order the DHCP process steps. (Not all options are used.)

Step 3 -> DHCPREQUEST (broadcast)
DHCPACK (proadcast)
Step 4 -> DHCPACK (unicast)
Step 2 -> DHCPOFFER (unicast)
Step 1 -> DHCPDISCOVER (broadcast)

QUESTION 96

Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used)


Place the options in the following order.
— not scored —
full operating system -> flash
limited operating system -> ROM
routing table -> RAM
startup configuration file -> NVRAM

QUESTION 97

Match each borderless switched network principle to its description (Not all options are used)

resiliency -> This provides “always-on” dependability
hierarchical -> Layers minimize the number of devices on any one tier that share a single point of failure
modularity -> Each layer has specific roles and functions that can scale easily
flexibility -> This shares the network traffic load across all network resources
none -> This provides quality of service and additional security

QUESTION 98

Match the description to the correct VLAN type (Notall options are used )


Answers:

data VLANs -> configured to carry user generated traffic
default VLAN -> all switch ports assigned to this VLAN after initial bootup of the switch
native VLAN -> carries untagged traffic
management VLAN -> an IP address and subnet mask are assigned to this VLAN, allowing the switch to be accessed by HTTP, Telnet, SSH, or SNMP
none -> only accessible by the network administrator

QUESTION 99

Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used)

Answer

Step 2 -> Each router is responsible for “saying “hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks.
Step 3 -> Each router builds an LSP that contains the state of each directly connected link.
Step 1 -> Each router learns about each of its own directly connected networks.
none -> Each router increments the hop count for the destination network.
Step 4 -> Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors who then store all LSPs recieved in a database.
Step 5 -> Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best path to each destination network.

QUESTION 100

Match the switching characteristic to the correct term. (Not all options are used.)

This is the ability to store frames before forwarding them -> buffering
Each switch port can simultaneously send and receive data -> full duplex
Each switch port creates this by reducing the possibility of colisions -> collision domain
Switches use this to forward frames to the destination -> MAC address table
None:
broadcast domain
half duplex
switching database

QUESTION 101

Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)


priority 4 -> The router displays a console message to configure the router ID manually.
priority 3 -> The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an active interface.
none -> The router chooses the highest IPv6 address that is configured on the router.
priority 2 -> The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a loopback interface.
priority 1 -> The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any.

QUESTION 102


identification -> host name
security -> passwords
connectivity -> assignment of IP address to interface
access remote networks -> routing protocols

QUESTION 103

Match the step number to the sequence of stages that occur during the HSRP failover process.

Place the options in the following order:
The new forwarding router assumes both the IP and MAC address of the virtual router. -> Step 4 
– not scored –
The standby router assumes the role of the forwarding router. -> Step 3 
The forwarding router fails. -> Step 1
The standby router stops seeing hello messages from the forwarding router. -> Step 2

QUESTION 104

Match the spanning-tree feature with the protocol type. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

Cisco implementation of IEEE 802.1D -> PVST+
Fast converging enhancement of IEEE 802.1D-> RSTP
IEEE standard that reduces the number of STP instances -> MSTP
– not scored ==> MST
Proprietary per VLAN implementation of IEEE 802.1w-> Rapid PVST+

QUESTION 105

Match the description to the correct command. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

This command shows information about the status of the port involved in the Etherchannel. -> show interfaces fa0/2 etherchannel
– not scored –
This command shows information about the reliability of the port-channel. -> show interfaces port-channel1
This command is used to check what port channels are configured on a switch. -> show etherchannel summary
This command shows the list of ports involved in the port channel and the time since the ports were bundled. -> show etherchannel port-channel

QUESTION 106

Match the type of attack to its description. (Not all options are used.)



Place the options in the following order: 
– not scored – 
MITM -> AN AP connected or enabled by an attacker to capture client data in transit.
spoofed disconnct DoS -> A series of cyclic dissasociate commands that causes all clients in the BSS to disconnect.
CTS flood DoS -> A repeated flood of the BSS with clear-to-send frames to a bogus client.

QUESTION 107

Place the following actions in the order in which they occur in a shared key authentication process. (Not all options are used.)



Place the options in the following order: 
– not scored – 
Step 2 -> The AP send a challenge text to the client.
Step 5 -> The AP authenticates the client.
Step 1 -> The client sends an authentication frame to the AP.
Step 3 -> The client encrypts the message.
– not scored – 
Step 4 -> The AP decypts the message.

QUESTION 108

Match each OSPF state to its function. (Not all options are used.)


Place the options in the following order: 
– not scored –
full state -> Routers have converged.
loading state -> LSRs and LSUs are used to gain additional route information.
ExStart state -> Master / slave relationships are negotiated.

QUESTION 109

Match each OSPF election criterion to its sequential order for the OSPF DR and BDR election process. (Not all options are used.)



Place the options in the following order: 
third -> Elect the router with the highest IPv4 address on loopback interfaces.
second -> Elect the router with the highest manually configured router ID.
– not scored – 
first -> Elect the router with the highest interface priority
fourth -> Elect the router with the highest active IPv4 address on physical interfaces.

QUESTION 110

Order the precedence in which an EIGRP router would choose the router ID. (Not all options are used.)

first -> eigrp router-id command
third -> highest IPv4 address on active physical interfaces
second -> highest IPv4 address on loopback interfaces

EIGRP needs a router ID to uniquely identify routers in an EIGRP domain. A router will use any manually configured router ID first. If a router ID is not manually configured, the router will choose an ID based on the interface with the highest IPv4 address. Because loopback interfaces are more stable than physical interfaces, the highest IPv4 address on a loopback will be used as the router ID. If there is no loopback interface configured, then the highest IPv4 address on any physical interface will be used.

QUESTION 111

Match the correct version of EIGRP with the EIGRP features. (Not all options are used.)

EIGRP for IPv4 only -> source address for EIGRP messages is a routable address
EIGRP for IPv6 only -> source address for EIGRP messages is a link-local address
both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 -> uses a 32-bit router ID

Most of the features for EIGRP are the same for both IPv4 and IPv6. The exceptions are source and destination addresses for protocol messages. EIGRP for IPv4 uses the routable address of the exit interface as the source and the all-EIGRP-routers IPv4 multicast address as the destination. EIGRP for IPv6 uses the link-local address of the exit interface as the source and the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address for the destination. Dijkstra’s algorithm is used for OSPF and DUAL is used for EIGRP.

QUESTION 112

Match each type of OSPF router to its description. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
backbone router-> a router in the backbone area
– not scored –
internal router -> a router with all its interfaces in the same area
Autonomous System Boundary Router -> a router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF network
Area Border Router -> a router with its interfaces attached to multiple areas

QUESTION 113

Match each OSPF packet type to how it is used by a router. (Not all options are used.)


link-state update packet -> advertise new information
database description packet -> compare local topology to that sent by another router
hello packet -> establish and maintain adjacencies
link-state request packet -> query another router for additional information

QUESTION 114

Match the description to the Cisco IOS category. (Not all options apply.)


Place the options in the following order:
technology train
-> branches from another train 
-> has the latest features 
mainline train
-> possibly is 12.4 
-> contains mostly bug fixes

QUESTION 115

Match the step sequence to the multiarea OSPF route calculation process. (Not all options are used.)


Third step -> calculate the best paths to external autonomous system destinations
First step -> calculate the best paths to intra-area destinations
Second step -> calculate the best paths to other area networks within the internetwork

QUESTION 116

Match the switched LAN problem to the correct symptom. (Not all options are used.)


multiple frame transmission -> Multiple copies of unicast frames are delivered to destination stations.
broadcast storms -> All devices in the domain receive the frame and an endless loop can occur.
MAC database instability -> Copies of the same frame are received on different ports of the switch.

QUESTION 117

Question as presented:

disables -> The port does not participate in spanning tree and does not forward frames.
blocking -> The port receives BPDU frames but does not forward frames.
learning -> The port prepares to participate in frame forwarding and begins to populate the MAC address table.

QUESTION 118

Match the description to the EIGRP packet type. (Not all options are used.)

used to propagate routing information to EIGRP neighbors -> update packets
used to acknowledge the receipt of an EIGRP message that was sent using reliable delivery -> acknowledgment packets
used for neighbor discovery and to maintain neighbor adjacencies -> hello packets
sent in response to an EIGRP query -> reply packets
used to query routes from neighbors -> query packets

QUESTION 119

Match each description to its corresponding LSA type. (Not all options are used.)

generated by the DR on a multiaccess segment and flooded within an area -> type 2
generated by ABRs and sent between areas -> type 3
generated by ABRs and sent between areas to advertise the location of an ASBR -> type 4
generated by all routers and flooded within an area -> type 1

QUESTION 120

Match the CLI command prompt with the command or response entered when backing up a Release 15 IOS image to an IPv6 TFTP server. (Not all options are used.)

Answer

copy tftp: flash0:
2001:DB8:CAFE:100::99 -> Address or name of remote host?
C1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin -> Source filename?
C2800nm-advipservicesk9-mz.124-6.T.bin
copy flash0: tftp: -> RouterA #
172.16.2.100

QUESTION 121

Match each OSPF LSA description with its type. (Not all options are used.)

This type of LSA exists in multi-access & non-broadcast multi-access networks w/DR => TYPE 2 LSA
This type of LSA describes routes to networks outside of the OSPF AS => TYPE 5 LSA
This type of LSA is flooded only within the area which it originated => TYPE 1 LSA
This type of LSA is used by ABR to advertise networks from other areas => TYPE 3 LSA

QUESTION 122

Refer to the exhibit. Match the description to the corresponding value used by the DUAL FSM. (Not all options are used.)


feasible distance to 192.168.11.64 => 660110
new successor to network 192.168.1.0 => 192.168.3.1
destination network => 192.168.11.64

QUESTION 123

Match the OSPF router type description with its name

Internal routers -> All the router of this type have identical LSDBs.
Area border routers (ABR) -> All the routers of this type maintain separate LSDBs for each area to which they connect.
Autonomous System Boundary Routers (ASBR) -> All the router of this type can import non-OSPF network information to the OSPF network and vice versa using route redistribution.
backbone router -> none


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