Network Technician Career Path Exam Answers (Course Final)

Network Technician Career Path Exam Answers

1. What two radio frequency bands are used in home Wireless LANs? (Choose two.)

  • 5 MHz
  • 9 MHz
  • 2.4 GHz
  • 5 GHz
  • 900 GHz

Explanation: The wireless technologies most frequently used in home networks are in the unlicensed 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency ranges.

2. Which is a characteristic of the network SSID?

  • It is encrypted by default.
  • It is case sensitive.
  • It contains exactly 16 characters.
  • It is only required for guest access.

Explanation: The SSID is the name of the network and is case sensitive. It can contain up to 32 characters. Any device connecting to the wireless network must know the SSID.

3. What is the function of the SSID on a wireless network?

  • It identifies the wireless protocol in use.
  • It contains the password required to join the network.
  • It identifies the wireless standard required to join the network.
  • It identifies the WLAN in use on the network.

4. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

  • durable connections
  • limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
  • greater distances per cable run
  • lower installation cost
  • easily terminated
  • greater bandwidth potential

Explanation: Optical fiber cable transmits data over longer distances and at higher bandwidths than any other networking media. Unlike copper wires, fiber-optic cable can transmit signals with less attenuation and is completely immune to EMI and RFI.

5. What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

  • specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication
  • dictating the content of the message sent during communication
  • specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication
  • providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur

Explanation: Protocols provide rules that define how a message is transmitted across a network. Implementation requirements such as electronic and bandwidth details for data communication are specified by standards. Operating systems are not specified by protocols, but will implement protocols. Protocols determine how and when to send a message but they do not control the contents of a message.

6. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

  • packet forwarding
  • domain name resolution
  • MAC address assignment
  • path selection

Explanation: A router accepts a packet and accesses its routing table to determine the appropriate exit interface based on the destination address. The router then forwards the packet out of that interface.

7. What three blocks of addresses are defined by RFC 1918 for private network use? (Choose three.)

  • 172.16.0.0/12
  • 169.254.0.0/16
  • 192.168.0.0/16
  • 10.0.0.0/8
  • 100.64.0.0/14
  • 239.0.0.0/8

Explanation: RFC 1918, Address Allocation for Private Internets, defines three blocks of IPv4 address for private networks that should not be routable on the public Internet.

  • 10.0.0.0/8
  • 172.16.0.0/12
  • 192.168.0.0/16

8. Consider the group of five IPv4 addresses each with the subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Which two IPv4 addresses belong to the same local network? (Choose two.)

  • 192.168.10.2
  • 193.168.10.16
  • 192.167.10.74
  • 192.168.10.56
  • 192.168.100.62

Explanation: The subnet mask determines which part of the IP address is the network number. Because the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0, the first three sets of numbers in each IPv4 address indicate the network number. IPv4 addresses with the same network number are considered in the same local network.

9. Which IPv6 address notation is valid?

  • 2001:0DB8::ABCD::1234
  • 2001::ABCD::
  • ABCD:160D::4GAB:FFAB
  • 2001:DB8:0:1111::200

Explanation: IPv6 addresses are represented by 32 hexadecimal digits (0-9, A-F). The size of the notation can be reduced by eliminating leading zeroes in any hextet and by replacing a single, contiguous string of hextets containing all zeroes with a double colon, which can only be used one time.

10. When IPv4 is configured for a computer on a network, what does the subnet mask identify?

  • the dynamic subnetwork configuration
  • the device that the computer uses to access another network
  • the part of the IP address that identifies the network
  • the pool of addresses assigned within the network

Explanation: The IP addressing system is a hierarchical addressing system. An IP address is made up of two parts: the network address and the host address. For IPv4, the subnet mask is used to identify which portion of an IPv4 address is the network address and which portion is the host address.

11. What is one difference between a switch and a router?

  • A router creates smaller broadcast domains, and a switch extends the size of a broadcast domain.
  • A router provides segmentation at Layer 2, and a switch provides segmentation at Layer 3.
  • A router uses a routing table to store information about destination host IP addresses, and a switch uses an ARP table to store information about destination host MAC addresses.
  • A router propagates broadcast messages, and a switch does not propagate broadcast messages.

12. What is a benefit of adding a router within an IP network?

  • reduces the number of hosts that can connect to the network
  • increases the size of the local network
  • controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network
  • keeps broadcasts contained within a local network

Explanation: Routers can divide or segment a network. Because routers do not forward broadcasts they can keep broadcasts isolated to the local network.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be used as the default gateway setting of host H1?

Network Technician Career Path Exam

Network Technician Career Path Exam

  • R1: S0/0/0
  • R2: S0/0/0
  • R1: G0/0
  • R2: S0/0/1

Explanation: The default gateway for host H1 is the router interface that is attached to the LAN that H1 is a member of. In this case, that is the G0/0 interface of R1. H1 should be configured with the IP address of that interface in its addressing settings. R1 will provide routing services to packets from H1 that need to be forwarded to remote networks.

14. A user types www.cisco.com into a web browser to visit the corporate website. Which service will resolve the domain name to an associated IP address?

  • FTP
  • DHCP
  • DNS
  • SMTP

15. A new employee is attempting to configure a cell phone to connect to the email server of the company. Which port number should be selected when using the IMAP4 protocol to access email messages stored on the local server?

  • 143
  • 25
  • 110
  • 69

Explanation: The IMAP4 protocol uses the TCP protocol with port 143 for accessing emails stored on a local server.

16. What application protocol is used to transfer files between systems?

  • FTP
  • SSH
  • DHCP
  • IMAP

17. An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees.
What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)

  • powerline networking
  • scalability
  • security
  • integrity
  • fault tolerance
  • quality of service

Explanation: Usernames and passwords relate to network security. Good quality video, to support video conferencing, relates to prioritizing the video traffic with quality of service (QoS). The fact that a connection to an ISP failed and was then restored but went unnoticed by employees relates to the fault tolerant design of the network.

18. Which two scenarios would benefit the user the most by adding quality of service (QoS) to the network? (Choose two.)

  • Students are updating information about their sport activities on the class Facebook page.
  • A student is sending emails to a friend.
  • A student is communicating via Skype with a friend in another country.
  • Students are watching a lecture from a YouTube site.

Explanation: Voice and video data need to be transmitted in a continuous stream. If packets are delayed, the audio and video quality will be poor, sometimes even not usable. QoS can give voice and video data high priority during the data transmission so that they would be sent first before other types of traffic, such as email, web surfing, and web page update.

19. Which three statements describe the functions of the Cisco hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)

  • Route summarization is not necessary at the core and distribution layers.
  • The core layer usually employs a star topology.
  • The goal of the core layer is maximizing throughput.
  • The distribution layer is responsible for traffic filtering and isolating failures from the core.
  • The access layer provides a means of connecting end devices to the network.
  • The distribution layer distributes network traffic directly to end users.

Explanation: There are three layers of the hierarchical network design model.
– Access: Provides a connection point to end users.
– Distribution: Controls traffic flows between access and core layers.
– Core: Maximizes throughput moving traffic as quickly as possible.

20. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 sends a frame with the destination MAC address 3c97.0e07.a1b2. Switch S1 looks up the destination MAC address in its CAM table but the address is not there. What will the switch do?
Network Technician Career Path Exam Answers (Course Final) 1

  • It willl add the destination MAC address to the CAM table.
  • It will forward the frame out all ports except Fa0/1.
  • It will send a destination unreachable message back to PC1.
  • The switch will drop the frame.
  • It will forward the frame out port Fa0/2 towards the router.

Explanation: When a switch receives a frame with a destination that it does not already have in its CAM table, it will forward the frame out all ports except the one on which the frame was received. This is called unknown unicast flooding.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?

Network Technician Pathway Course Final Exam

Network Technician Pathway Course Final Exam

  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
    Source IP: 10.1.1.10
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
    Source IP: 10.1.1.10
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3
    Source IP: 192.168.1.1
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
    Source IP: 10.1.1.1
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
    Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Explanation: As a packet traverses the network, the Layer 2 addresses will change at every hop as the packet is de-encapsulated and re-encapsulated, but the Layer 3 addresses will remain the same.

22. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

  • 203.0.113.211
  • 209.165.201.223
  • 192.0.2.199
  • 198.51.100.201

Explanation: Each section (octet) contains eight binary digits. Each digit represents a specific value (128, 64, 32, 16, 8, 4, 2, and 1). Everywhere there is a 1, the specific value is relevant. Add all relevant values in a particular octet to obtain the decimal value. For example binary 11001011 equals 203 in decimal.

23. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

  • Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.
  • A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
  • Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.
  • A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.

Explanation: Because there are no sequence numbers in UDP segments, there is no possibility to arrange the datagrams in the correct order. Sessions and three-way handshake are related to TCP communications. UDP servers can use registered or nonregistered port numbers to listen to clients.

24. A home network has both wired and wireless connectivity. From a laptop computer, the user issues a ping to the wireless printer located in another room. The first two echo requests fail, but the last two succeed. Additional pings are all successful. Why do the first two echo requests fail?

  • The distance between the computer and the printer causes delay on the first two pings.
  • The computer and the printer must join the wireless network first and that process takes time.
  • The computer must use ARP to obtain the MAC address of the printer and this process takes time.
  • The wireless printer must be activated and that takes time.

Explanation: In order to successfully send a packet on an Ethernet network, the computer sending the ping needs four key pieces of information: (1) source MAC address, (2) destination MAC address, (3) source IP address, and (4) destination IP address. The computer sending the ping knows its own source IP address and source MAC address. The computer also knows from the ping command the destination IP address. The only information not known is the destination MAC address. The destination MAC address is discovered by using ARP.

25. What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.)

  • On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays.
  • Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.
  • Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.
  • Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.
  • Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.

Explanation: Large numbers of ARP broadcast messages could cause momentary data communications delays. Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent to intercept network traffic. ARP requests and replies cause entries to be made into the ARP table, not the MAC address table. ARP table overflows are very unlikely. Manually configuring static ARP associations is a way to prevent, not facilitate, ARP poisoning and MAC address spoofing. Multiple ARP replies resulting in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of connected nodes and are associated with the relevant switch port are required for normal switch frame forwarding operations. It is not an ARP caused network problem.

26. In the OSI model, what three functional areas are addressed by physical layer standards? (Choose three.)

  • physical components
  • frame encapsulation
  • media access control
  • signaling
  • encoding
  • error detection and retransmission

Explanation: The physical layer standards address three functional areas: physical components, encoding, and signaling. Frame encapsulation, media access control, and error detection and retransmission are services provided by the data link layer.

27. How do hosts ensure that their packets are directed to the correct network destination?

  • They search in their own local routing table for a route to the network destination address and pass this information to the default gateway.
  • They send a query packet to the default gateway asking for the best route.
  • They always direct their packets to the default gateway, which will be responsible for the packet delivery.
  • They have to keep their own local routing table that contains a route to the loopback interface, a local network route, and a remote default route.​

Explanation: Hosts must maintain their own local routing table to ensure that network layer packets are directed to the correct destination network. This local table typically contains a route to the loopback interface, a route to the network that the host is connected to, and a local default route, which represents the route that packets must take to reach all remote network addresses.

28. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet with the destination IP address of 172.17.10.14. What will the router do with this packet?

Network Technician Career Path Exam Answers (Course Final) 2

  • Forward the packet through interface FastEthernet1/1.
  • Forward the packet through interface FastEthernet0/1.
  • Forward the packet through interface Serial0/0/0.
  • Drop the packet.

29. A user has taken a personal laptop to work. The laptop is unable to discover the name of the office wireless network. What are two potential causes of this problem? (Choose two.)

  • The laptop has not received an IP address from the wireless router.
  • The wireless router is set to mixed mode.
  • The laptop must be configured with the office workgroup name.
  • The network does not support the wireless protocol in use by the laptop.
  • The wireless router is not broadcasting the SSID.

Explanation: The laptop could be using an older NIC that uses a protocol not supported by the network. This would be especially likely if the wireless router was not configured in mixed mode. In addition, the wireless router could have SSID broadcasting deactivated. In either case, the computer would not be able to discover the network name. An IP address or workgroup configuration is not required to see the network name.

30. A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?

  • ipconfig /displaydns
  • ping
  • nslookup
  • tracert

31. Local workstations are unable to access web pages located on the www.cisco.com web server. Pings from the workstations to the server using the ping www.cisco.com command are successful. What settings should the administrator check to determine the cause of the problem?

  • MAC address settings
  • IP address settings
  • firewall settings
  • DNS server settings

Explanation: If Layers 1 through 3 appear to be operating successfully and the devices can ping the web server, the firewall settings should be checked to determine if the web traffic to the server is permitted.

32. A technician receives a trouble ticket from a user reporting that a website is no longer accessible. What two questions would the technician ask to narrow down the potential problem? (Choose two.)

  • What operating system is installed on your computer?
  • Can you access other web sites from this computer browser?
  • What model computer are you using to access this site?
  • Could you access this web site previously from this device?
  • Do you remember your password to this web site?

Explanation: To narrow down the problem, the technician asks if the computer was previously able to access the website and if other websites are accessible. If the answer is yes to both questions, the technician has narrowed the issue to problems with the single website on this day.

33. Which two actions demonstrate effective active listening techniques when assisting a customer with a problem? (Choose two.)

  • re-asking questions the customer has already answered when describing the problem
  • stopping the customer so you can ask questions as you think of them
  • allowing the customer to explain the problem
  • correcting the customer when they use incorrect technical terms or jargon
  • Let the customer know that you are listening by interjecting phrases such as “I understand,” “I see,” and “OK.”

34. Which question enables the technician to determine the scope of a network issue reported by a user?

  • Are other users in your area experiencing the same issue?
  • Is the problem one that you have experienced before?
  • Are you seeing any error messages when the problem occurs?
  • Have you added any new applications recently?

Explanation: It is important to determine how many users are affected to find the scope of a problem. This helps the technician determine if the problem is isolated to one computer, office, floor, or network.

35. Employees in an organization report that they cannot access the customer database on the main server. Further investigation reveals that the database file is now encrypted. Shortly afterward, the organization receives a threatening email demanding payment for the decryption of the database file. What type of attack has the organization experienced?

  • man-in-the-middle attack
  • DoS attack
  • trojan horse
  • ransomware

Explanation: In a ransomware attack, the attacker compromises the victum computer and encrypts the hard drive so that data can no longer be accessed by the user. The attacker then demands payment from the user to decrypt the drive.

36. A secretary receives a phone call from someone claiming that their manager is about to give an important presentation but the presentation files are corrupted.

The caller sternly asks that the secretary email the presentation right away to a personal email address. The caller also states that the secretary is being held personally responsible for the success of this presentation.

What type of social engineering tactic is the caller using?

  • intimidation
  • trusted partners
  • familiarity
  • urgency

Explanation: Intimidation is a tactic that cybercriminals will often use to bully a victim into taking an action that compromises security.

37. What do you call an impersonation attack that takes advantage of a trusted relationship between two systems?

  • spamming
  • man-in-the-middle
  • sniffing
  • spoofing

Explanation: In spoofing attacks, hackers can disguise their devices by using a valid address from the network and therefore bypass authentication processes. MAC addresses and IP addresses can be spoofed and can also be used to spoof ARP relationships.

38. Match the examples of cyber threat to the description.

Network Technician Pathway Course Final Exam Q38

Network Technician Pathway Course Final Exam Q38

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

hardware failure disk drive crashes
human error inadvertent data entry error
utility interruption water damage resulting from sprinkler failure
software error a cross-site script or illegal file server share

39. Match the characteristics to the correct type of fiber.

Network Technician Career Path Exam Answers (Course Final) 3

Answer

Network Technician Career Path Exam Answers (Course Final) 4

LED as light source: Multimode Fiber
Laser as light source: Single-mode Fiber
Generally used with Campus backbone: Single-mode Fiber
Generally used with LANs: Multimode Fiber
Several paths of light into the fiber: Multimode Fiber
Only one ray of light into the fiber: Single-mode Fiber

Explanation: Single-mode fiber uses a laser as the light source. Its small core produces a single straight path for light and it is commonly used with campus backbones. Multimode fiber uses LEDs as the light source. Its larger core allows for multiple paths for the light. It is commonly used with LANs.

40. Match each DHCP message type with its description.

Network Technician Pathway Course Final Exam 40

Network Technician Pathway Course Final Exam 40

41. Match the definition to the type of cloud.

Network Technician Pathway Course Final Exam Q41

Network Technician Pathway Course Final Exam Q41

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

intended for exclusive use by multiple organizations with shared functional needs community
services made available to the general population public cloud
made up of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures bound together by technology hybrid cloud
intended for a specific organization or entity, such as the government private cloud

42. A client device has initiated a secure HTTP request to a web browser. Which well-known port address number is associated with the destination address?

  • 110
  • 80
  • 443
  • 404

Explanation: Port numbers are used in TCP and UDP communications to differentiate between the various services running on a device. The well-known port number used by HTTPs is port 443.

43. Which address should be configured as the default gateway address of a client device?

  • the IPv4 address of the router interface that is connected to the same LAN
  • the Layer 2 address of the switch management interface
  • the Layer 2 address of the switch port that is connected to the workstation
  • the IPv4 address of the router interface that is connected to the internet

Explanation: The default gateway is used when a host needs to send messages to destinations that are located in remote networks. The default gateway address is configured on the host with the IPv4 address of the router interface that is connected to the same local network as the host.

44. Which two applications provide virtual terminal access to remote servers? (Choose two.)

  • DHCP
  • SMTP
  • SSH
  • DNS
  • Telnet

Explanation: Telnet and SSH are two services that provide virtual terminal services to servers. DNS maps a domain name to its IP address. DHCP provides dynamic IP addressing information. SMTP provides email service.

45. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is troubleshooting connectivity on the office network. PC1 is able to send print jobs to Printer1, but is unable to access File Server1. Which action would correct the problem?

Network Technician Pathway Course Final Exam

Network Technician Pathway Course Final Exam

  • Change the R1 Fa0/1 interface IP address to 10.231.64.1.
  • Change the File Server1 IP address to 10.231.96.253.
  • Change the PC1 IP address to 10.231.64.115.
  • Change the R1 Fa0/0 interface subnet mask to 255.255.0.0.

Explanation: To correct the problem the Fa0/1 interface must be put into the 10.231.64.0 /19 network, so that it is in the same logical network as PC1. Currently the interface is in the 10.231.128.0 network.

46. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

  • netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
  • tracert
  • nslookup
  • ping
  • arp -a
  • ipconfig
  • telnet

Explanation: The ipconfig and nslookup commands will provide initial IP address and DNS configuration information to the technicians and determine if DHCP is assigning correct information to the PCs. The ping utility would be used to verify, or not, connectivity to the default gateway (router) using the configured default gateway address, or using the known correct default gateway address if these are found to be different. The arp -a or netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor commands could be used if the problem is then suspected to be an IP address to MAC address mapping issue. The telnet and tracert utilities could be used to determine where the problem was located in the network if the default gateway configuration was found to be correct.

47. A user reports that the computer occasionally loses connectivity when streaming videos from the web. The technician suspects that a network hardware issue may exist in a device located between the computer and the internet edge router. Which documentation would the technician use to determine where network devices are located in the path from the user to the edge router?

  • logical topology map
  • physical topology map
  • three-layer enterprise network design model
  • cloud service architecture diagram

48. What type of connection is used when a teleworker must have secure access to devices and services located on an enterprise network?

  • HTTP
  • VPN
  • FTP
  • RTP

Explanation: A VPN connection between the teleworker and the enterprise provides a secure connection to the enterprise network. All communications between the entities are encrypted. HTTP and FTP are not secure protocols. RDP provides remote access to a single Windows computer.

49. What is the default SSID Broadcast setting on a wireless router?

  • Auto
  • Off
  • Disabled
  • Enabled

Explanation: When a wireless router is being set up, the default setting for the SSID Broadcast is enabled. This means the wireless router will broadcast the SSID to all devices. This can be a security concern and best practice is to disable the broadcast setting.

50. Match the authentication method to description.

Network Technician Career Path Exam Answers (Course Final) 5

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) A Wi-Fi Alliance standard that uses WEP but secures the data with the much stronger TKIP encryption algorithm.
WPA3 This authentication standard requires the use of Protected Management Frames (PMF).
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) The original 802.11 specifications were designed to secure the data using the RC4 encryption method with a static key.
WPA2 The current industry standard for securing wireless networks that use AES for encryption.

51. What is the purpose of using the Windows BitLocker tool?

  • to encrypt only memory
  • to encrypt only folders
  • to encrypt only temporary files
  • to encrypt the entire hard drive

Explanation: Microsoft Windows uses BitLocker to encrypt a drive’s contents (including temporary files and memory).

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