Network Defense (NetDef) Course Final Exam Answers

Network Defense (NetDef) Course Final Exam Answers

Modules 1 – 11 of the Network Defense (NetDef) course Final Answers

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1. What is a characteristic of a layered defense-in-depth security approach?

  • When one device fails, another one takes over.
  • One safeguard failure does not affect the effectiveness of other safeguards.
  • Three or more devices are used.
  • Routers are replaced with firewalls.

Explanation: When a layered defense-in-depth security approach is used, layers of security are placed through the organization-at the edge, within the network, and on endpoints. The layers work together to create the security architecture. In this environment, a failure of one safeguard does not affect the effectiveness of other safeguards.

2. What device would be used as the third line of defense in a defense-in-depth approach?

  • internal router
  • edge router
  • host
  • firewall

Explanation: In a defense-in-depth approach, the edge router would form the first line of defense. The firewall would be the second line of defense followed by the internal router making up the third line of defense.

3. Match the Security Onion tool with the description.

Network Defense (NetDef) Course Final Exam

Network Defense (NetDef) Course Final Exam

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

network-based intrusion detection system Snort
packet capture application Wireshark
host-based intrusion detection system OSSEC
high-level cybersecurity analysis console Sguil

4. Which wireless standard made AES and CCM mandatory?

  • WEP
  • WEP2
  • WPA
  • WPA2

Explanation: Wireless security depends on several industry standards and has progressed from WEP to WPA and finally WPA2.

5. In a comparison of biometric systems, what is the crossover error rate?

  • rate of acceptability and rate of false negatives
  • rate of rejection and rate of false negatives
  • rate of false negatives and rate of false positives
  • rate of false positives and rate of acceptability

Explanation: In comparing biometric systems, there are several important factors to consider including accuracy, speed or throughput rate, and acceptability to users.

6. What are two recommended steps to protect and secure a wireless network? (Choose two.)

  • Use WPA2-AES encryption.
  • Use the default SSID.
  • Update firmware.
  • Locate the wireless router where it is accessible to users.
  • Enable remote management.

Explanation: Two best practices for securing wireless networks are to encrypt the wireless traffic with WPA2 encryption and to keep the wireless router firmware updated. This prevents data from being readable by an attacker and fixes any known bugs and vulnerabilities in the router.

7. What is a feature of virtual LANs (VLANs)?

  • A single collision domain is enabled on a switch that is shared between VLANs.
  • Communication between different VLANs on the one switch is enabled by default.
  • Switch port utilization is decreased because each port is only associated with one broadcast domain.
  • Logical segmentation is provided by creating multiple broadcast domains on a single switch.

Explanation: Virtual LANs (VLANs) provide a logical segmentation by creating multiple broadcast domains on the same network switch. VLANs provide higher utilization of switch ports because a port could be associated to the necessary broadcast domain, and multiple broadcast domains can reside on the same switch. Network devices in one VLAN cannot communicate with devices in a different VLAN without the implementation of inter-VLAN routing.

8. What is an example of privilege escalation attack?

  • A DDoS attack is launched against a government server and causes the server to crash.
  • A port scanning attack finds that the FTP service is running on a server that allows anonymous access.
  • A threat actor sends an email to an IT manager to request the root access.
  • A threat actor performs an access attack and gains the administrator password.

Explanation: With the privilege escalation exploit, vulnerabilities in servers or access control systems are exploited to grant an unauthorized user, or software process, higher levels of privilege than either should have. After the higher privilege is granted, the threat actor can access sensitive information or take control of a system.

9. What is the principle behind the nondiscretionary access control model?

  • It applies the strictest access control possible.
  • It allows access based on attributes of the object be to accessed.
  • It allows access decisions to be based on roles and responsibilities of a user within the organization.
  • It allows users to control access to their data as owners of that data.

Explanation: The nondiscretionary access control model used the roles and responsibilities of the user as the basis for access decisions.

10. Which two features are included by both TACACS+ and RADIUS protocols? (Choose two.)

  • utilization of transport layer protocols
  • separate authentication and authorization processes
  • password encryption
  • 802.1X support
  • SIP support

Explanation: Both TACACS+ and RADIUS support password encryption (TACACS+ encrypts all communication) and use Layer 4 protocol (TACACS+ uses TCP and RADIUS uses UDP). TACACS+ supports separation of authentication and authorization processes, while RADIUS combines authentication and authorization as one process. RADIUS supports remote access technology, such as 802.1x and SIP; TACACS+ does not.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?
Network Defense (NetDef) Course Final Exam

  • Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.
  • Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.
  • Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.
  • Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

Explanation: Because the new deny ACE is a host address that falls within the existing 172.16.0.0 network that is permitted, the router rejects the command and displays an error message. For the new deny ACE to take effect, it must be manually configured by the administrator with a sequence number that is less than 10.

12. Which command is used to activate an IPv6 ACL named ENG_ACL on an interface so that the router filters traffic prior to accessing the routing table?

  • ipv6 traffic-filter ENG_ACL in
  • ipv6 traffic-filter ENG_ACL out
  • ipv6 access-class ENG_ACL out
  • ipv6 access-class ENG_ACL in

Explanation: For the purpose of applying an access list to a particular interface, the ipv6 traffic-filter IPv6 command is equivalent to the access-group IPv4 command. The direction in which the traffic is examined (in or out) is also required.

13. In which configuration would an outbound ACL placement be preferred over an inbound ACL placement?

  • when the ACL is applied to an outbound interface to filter packets coming from multiple inbound interfaces before the packets exit the interface
  • when an outbound ACL is closer to the source of the traffic flow
  • when an interface is filtered by an outbound ACL and the network attached to the interface is the source network being filtered within the ACL
  • when a router has more than one ACL

Explanation: An outbound ACL should be utilized when the same ACL filtering rules will be applied to packets coming from more than one inbound interface before exiting a single outbound interface. The outbound ACL will be applied on the single outbound interface.

14. What are two differences between stateful and stateless firewalls? (Choose two.)

  • A stateless firewall is able to filter sessions that use dynamic port negotiations while a stateful firewall cannot.
  • A stateless firewall will examine each packet individually while a stateful firewall observes the state of a connection.
  • stateless firewall provides more stringent control over security than a stateful firewall.
  • A stateless firewall will provide more logging information than a stateful firewall.
  • A stateful firewall will prevent spoofing by determining whether packets belong to an existing connection while a stateless firewall follows pre-configured rule sets.

Explanation: There are many differences between a stateless and stateful firewall.
Stateless firewalls:

  • are susceptible to IP spoofing
  • do not reliably filter fragmented packets
  • use complex ACLs, which can be difficult to implement and maintain
  • cannot dynamically filter certain services
  • examine each packet individually rather than in the context of the state of a connection

Stateful firewalls:

  • are often used as a primary means of defense by filtering unwanted, unnecessary, or undesirable traffic
  • strengthen packet filtering by providing more stringent control over security
  • improve performance over packet filters or proxy servers
  • defend against spoofing and DoS attacks by determining whether packets belong to an existing connection or are from an unauthorized source
  • provide more log information than a packet filtering firewall

15. Which statement describes a typical security policy for a DMZ firewall configuration?

  • Traffic that originates from the inside interface is generally blocked entirely or very selectively permitted to the outside interface.
  • Traffic that originates from the DMZ interface is selectively permitted to the outside interface.
  • Return traffic from the inside that is associated with traffic originating from the outside is permitted to traverse from the inside interface to the outside interface.
  • Traffic that originates from the outside interface is permitted to traverse the firewall to the inside interface with few or no restrictions.
  • Return traffic from the outside that is associated with traffic originating from the inside is permitted to traverse from the outside interface to the DMZ interface.

Explanation: With a three interface firewall design that has internal, external, and DMZ connections, typical configurations include the following:
Traffic originating from DMZ destined for the internal network is normally blocked.
Traffic originating from the DMZ destined for external networks is typically permitted based on what services are being used in the DMZ.
Traffic originating from the internal network destined from the DMZ is normally inspected and allowed to return.
Traffic originating from external networks (the public network) is typically allowed in the DMZ only for specific services.

16. Which type of firewall makes use of a proxy server to connect to remote servers on behalf of clients?

  • stateless firewall
  • application gateway firewall
  • stateful firewall
  • packet filtering firewall

Explanation: An application gateway firewall, also called a proxy firewall, filters information at Layers 3, 4, 5, and 7 of the OSI model. It uses a proxy server to connect to remote servers on behalf of clients. Remote servers will see only a connection from the proxy server, not from the individual clients.

17. What is the result in the self zone if a router is the source or destination of traffic?

  • Only traffic that is destined for the router is permitted.
  • Only traffic that originates in the router is permitted.
  • No traffic is permitted.
  • All traffic is permitted.

Explanation: All traffic is permitted in the self zone if the traffic originates from, or is destined for, the router.

18. Designing a ZPF requires several steps. Which step involves dictating the number of devices between most-secure and least-secure zones and determining redundant devices?

  • identify subsets within zones and merge traffic requirements
  • design the physical infrastructure
  • establish policies between zones
  • determine the zones

Explanation: Designing ZPFs involves several steps:
Step 1 . Determine the zones – The administrator focuses on the separation of the network into zones. Zones establish the security borders of a network.
Step 2 . Establish policies between zones – For each pair of “source-destination” zones, define the sessions that clients in the source zones can request from servers in destination zones.
Step 3 . Design the physical infrastructure – After the zones have been identified, and the traffic requirements between them documented, the administrator must design the physical infrastructure. This includes dictating the number of devices between most-secure and least-secure zones and determining redundant devices.
Step 4 . Identify subsets within zones and merge traffic requirements – For each firewall device in the design, the administrator must identify zone subsets that are connected to its interfaces and merge the traffic requirements for those zones.

19. Which statement describes Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall operation?

  • The pass action works in only one direction.
  • Router management interfaces must be manually assigned to the self zone.
  • Service policies are applied in interface configuration mode.
  • A router interface can belong to multiple zones.

Explanation: The pass action allows traffic only in one direction. Interfaces automatically become members of the self zone. Interfaces are assigned to zones in interface configuration mode, but most configuration takes place in global configuration mode and associated submodes. Interfaces can belong to only one zone at any time.

20. Which cloud security domain describes controls related to securing the data itself?

  • Data Security and Encryption
  • Application Security
  • Security as a Service
  • Infrastructure Security

Explanation: The Security Guidance for Critical Areas of Focus in Cloud Computing v4 document developed by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) covers 14 domains of cloud security. Some of these domains are:

  • Infrastructure Security – describes cloud-specific aspects of infrastructure security and the foundation for operating securely in the cloud.
  • Data Security and Encryption – describes those controls related to securing the data itself, of which encryption is one of the most important.
  • Application Security – provides guidance on how to securely build and deploy applications in cloud computing environments, specifically for PaaS and IaaS.
  • Security as a Service – covers the continually evolving security services delivered from the cloud.

21. Which two advantages in security controls are provided by software-defined networks (SDN) over traditional network security solutions? (Choose two.)

  • offer more security features than hardware firewalls
  • easier insertion into the traffic path
  • apply to assets based on more flexible criteria than hardware firewalls
  • easier network isolation without constraints of physical hardware
  • higher performance than hardware firewalls

Explanation: Software-defined networks (SDN) enable new types of security controls and provide an overall gain for network security including:

  • easy network isolation without the constraints of physical hardware
  • SDN firewalls (security groups in cloud computing) apply to assets based on more flexible criteria than hardware firewalls

22. What is the function of SDKs in application development?

  • to provide a repository of code to reduce time and cost of application development
  • to maintain data integrity and identify malicious input
  • to store precompiled SQL statements that execute tasks
  • to verify software can run under required security settings
  • to prevent software from being reverse engineered by replacing sensitive data with fictional data

Explanation: SDKs, or Software Development Kits, provide a repository of useful code to make application development faster and cheaper.

23. A company is using a public cloud provider to host its software development and distribution processes. What two cloud resources is the company solely responsible for in the shared security responsibility model? (Choose two.)

  • network control
  • customer endpoints
  • application
  • data
  • identity management

Explanation: Hosting software development and distribution processes is an example of the PaaS model. In the shared security responsibility model, the cloud customer is responsible for data and endpoints security.

24. A company implements a security policy that ensures that a file sent from the headquarters office to the branch office can only be opened with a predetermined code. This code is changed every day. Which two algorithms can be used to achieve this task? (Choose two.)

  • MD5
  • AES
  • SHA-1
  • HMAC
  • 3DES

Explanation: The task to ensure that only authorized personnel can open a file is data confidentiality, which can be implemented with encryption. AES and 3DES are two encryption algorithms. HMAC can be used for ensuring origin authentication. MD5 and SHA-1 can be used to ensure data integrity.

25. What are two methods to maintain certificate revocation status? (Choose two.)

  • CRL
  • OCSP
  • subordinate CA
  • LDAP
  • DNS

Explanation: A digital certificate might need to be revoked if its key is compromised or it is no longer needed. The certificate revocation list (CRL) and Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP), are two common methods to check a certificate revocation status.

26. Before data is sent out for analysis, which technique can be used to replace sensitive data in nonproduction environments to protect the underlying information?

  • steganography
  • steganalysis
  • software obfuscation
  • data masking substitution

Explanation: Technologies exist to confuse attackers by changing data and using techniques to hide the original data.

27. Which technology would be used to create the server logs generated by network devices and reviewed by an entry level network person who works the night shift at a data center?

  • ACL
  • VPN
  • NAT
  • syslog

Explanation: Syslog is a daemon or service run on a server that accepts messages sent by network devices. These logs are frequently examined to detect inconsistencies and issues within the network.

28. Which two application layer protocols manage the exchange of messages between a client with a web browser and a remote web server? (Choose two.)

  • HTTPS
  • DNS
  • HTML
  • DHCP
  • HTTP

Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and HTTP Secure (HTTPS) are two application layer protocols that manage the content requests from clients and the responses from the web server. HTML (Hypertext Mark-up Language) is the encoding language that describes the content and display features of a web page. DNS is for domain name to IP address resolution. DHCP manages and provides dynamic IP configurations to clients.

29. How can IMAP be a security threat to a company?

  • It can be used to encode stolen data and send to a threat actor.
  • An email can be used to bring malware to a host.
  • Encrypted data is decrypted.
  • Someone inadvertently clicks on a hidden iFrame.

Explanation: IMAP, SMTP, and POP3 are email protocols. SMTP is used to send data from a host to a server or to send data between servers. IMAP and POP3 are used to download email messages and can be responsible for bringing malware to the receiving host.

30. Refer to the exhibit. Which technology generated the event log?
Network Defense (NetDef) Course Final Exam

  • web proxy
  • syslog
  • Netflow
  • Wireshark

Explanation: The source of the output is Netflow.

31. Which two tools have a GUI interface and can be used to view and analyze full packet captures? (Choose two.)

  • Wireshark
  • Splunk
  • Cisco Prime Network Analysis Module
  • nfdump
  • tcpdump

Explanation: The Network Analysis Module of the Cisco Prime Infrastructure system and Wireshark have GUI interfaces and can display full packet captures. The tcpdump tool is a command-line packet analyzer.

32. Which information can be provided by the Cisco NetFlow utility?

  • source and destination UDP port mapping
  • security and user account restrictions
  • peak usage times and traffic routing
  • IDS and IPS capabilities

Explanation: NetFlow efficiently provides an important set of services for IP applications including network traffic accounting, usage-based network billing, network planning, security, denial of service monitoring capabilities, and network monitoring. NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing.

33. A network administrator is reviewing server alerts because of reports of network slowness. The administrator confirms that an alert was an actual security incident. What is the security alert classification of this type of scenario?

  • false positive
  • true negative
  • true positive
  • false negative

Explanation: True Positive: The alert has been verified to be an actual security incident.
False Positive: The alert does not indicate an actual security incident. Benign activity that results in a false positive is sometimes referred to as a benign trigger.
True Negative: No security incident has occurred. The activity is benign.
False Negative: An undetected incident has occurred.

34. A network administrator is trying to download a valid file from an internal server. However, the process triggers an alert on a NMS tool. What condition describes this alert?

  • false positive
  • true positive
  • false negative
  • true negative

Explanation: Alerts can be classified as follows:

True Positive: The alert has been verified to be an actual security incident.
False Positive: The alert does not indicate an actual security incident. Benign activity that results in a false positive is sometimes referred to as a benign trigger.
An alternative situation is that an alert was not generated. The absence of an alert can be classified as:

True Negative: No security incident has occurred. The activity is benign.
False Negative: An undetected incident has occurred.

35. What is indicated by a Snort signature ID that is below 3464?

  • This is a custom signature developed by the organization to address locally observed rules.
  • The SID was created by Sourcefire and distributed under a GPL agreement.
  • The SID was created by the Snort community and is maintained in Community Rules.
  • The SID was created by members of EmergingThreats.

Explanation: Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) and network intrusion detection system (NIDS) developed by Sourcefire. It has the ability to perform real time traffic analysis and packet logging on Internet Protocol (IP) networks and can also be used to detect probes or attacks.

36. A network administrator is setting up a web server for a small advertising office and is concerned with data availability. The administrator wishes to implement disk fault tolerance using the minimum number of disks required. Which RAID level should the administrator choose?

  • RAID 5
  • RAID 0
  • RAID 1
  • RAID 6

Explanation: Both RAID 0 and RAID 1 require at least 2 disks. However, RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance. The minimum numbers of disks for RAID 5 and RAID 6 are 3 and 4 respectively.

37. Which three security services are provided by digital signatures? (Choose three.)

  • authenticates the source
  • guarantees data has not changed in transit
  • provides data encryption
  • provides nonrepudiation using HMAC functions
  • provides confidentiality of digitally signed data
  • authenticates the destination

Explanation: Digital signatures are a mathematical technique used to provide three basic security services. Digital signatures have specific properties that enable entity authentication and data integrity. In addition, digital signatures provide nonrepudiation of the transaction. In other words, the digital signature serves as legal proof that the data exchange did take place.

38. A company is deploying a customer service web application on AWS. A network administrator is installing and configuring a VM instance. Which three actions should the administrator take to protect the VM? (Choose three.)

  • Disable unneeded ports and services.
  • Enforce account management policies.
  • Configure RAID to ensure storage fault tolerance.
  • Plan subnet placement.
  • Deploy an advanced firewall appliance.
  • Install an IPS appliance in the VM.

Explanation: This scenario is a typical SaaS cloud service model. The company is responsible for data security. The company also shares the security responsibilities for endpoints and identity management in the cloud with AWS. AWS is responsible for physical infrastructure implementation and security. Some techniques that the company should consider to protect VMs in the cloud include:

  • Plan subnet placement.
  • Disable unneeded ports and services.
  • Enforce account management policies.
  • Install antivirus/anti-malware software and keep it updated.
  • Install host-based/software firewalls and IDS/IPS.

39. What is the purpose of mobile device management (MDM) software?

  • It is used to create a security policy.
  • It is used to identify potential mobile device vulnerabilities.
  • It is used by threat actors to penetrate the system.
  • It is used to implement security policies, setting, and software configurations on mobile devices.

Explanation: Mobile device management (MDM) software is used with mobile devices so that corporate IT personnel can track the devices, implement security settings, as well as control software configurations.

40. Which protocol would be used to provide security for employees that access systems remotely from home?

  • Telnet
  • WPA
  • SSH
  • SCP

Explanation: Various application layer protocols are used to for communications between systems. A secure protocol provides a secure channel over an unsecured network.

41. A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

  • automation
  • authorization
  • accounting
  • authentication

Explanation: After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.

42. To facilitate the troubleshooting process, which inbound ICMP message should be permitted on an outside interface?

  • echo request
  • echo reply
  • time-stamp reply
  • time-stamp request
  • router advertisement

Explanation: By allowing the ICMP echo reply message inbound to the organization, internal users are allowed to ping external addresses (and the reply message allowed to return).

43. Which two statements describe the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)

  • The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
  • The first 32 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
  • The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
  • The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
  • The last five bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
  • The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

Explanation: A wildcard mask uses 0s to indicate that bits must match. 0s in the first three octets represent 24 bits and four more zeros in the last octet, represent a total of 28 bits that must match. The four 1s represented by the decimal value of 15 represents the four bits to ignore.

44. When implementing components into an enterprise network, what is the purpose of a firewall?

  • A firewall is a system that stores vast quantities of sensitive and business-critical information.
  • A firewall is a system that enforces an access control policy between internal corporate networks and external networks.
  • A firewall is a system that is designed to secure, monitor, and manage mobile devices, including corporate-owned devices and employee-owned devices.
  • A firewall is a system that inspects network traffic and makes forwarding decisions based solely on Layer 2 Ethernet MAC addresses.

Explanation: A firewall is a system that enforces an access control policy and prevents the exposure of sensitive hosts, resources, and applications to untrusted users.

45. Which ICMP message type should be stopped inbound?

  • unreachable
  • source quench
  • echo-reply
  • echo

Explanation: The echo ICMP packet should not be allowed inbound on an interface. The echo-reply should be allowed so that when an internal device pings an external device, the reply is allowed to return.

46. When ACLs are configured to block IP address spoofing and DoS flood attacks, which ICMP message should be allowed both inbound and outbound?

  • source quench
  • echo
  • unreachable
  • echo reply

Explanation: Source quench ICMP messages provide the ability to have the sender throttle down the rate of messages when necessary. These messages should be allowed through the firewall in both inbound and outbound directions.​

47. What are two elements that form the PRI value in a syslog message? (Choose two.)

  • header
  • timestamp
  • facility
  • severity
  • hostname

Explanation: The PRI in a syslog message consists of two elements, the facility and severity of the message.

48. Which two options are network security monitoring approaches that use advanced analytic techniques to analyze network telemetry data? (Choose two.)

  • NBAD
  • NBA
  • IPFIX
  • Snorby
  • Sguil
  • NetFlow

Explanation: Network behavior analysis (NBA) and network behavior anomaly detection (NBAD) are approaches to network security monitoring that use advanced analytical techniques to analyze NetFlow or IPFIX network telemetry data.

49. What is a characteristic of a probabilistic analysis in an alert evaluation?

  • each event an inevitable result of antecedent causes
  • random variables that create difficulty in knowing the outcome of any given event with certainty
  • precise methods that yield the same result every time by relying on predefined conditions
  • analysis of applications that conform to application/networking standards

Explanation: Statistical techniques can be used to evaluate the risk that exploits will be successful in a given network. This type of analysis can help decision makers to better evaluate the cost of mitigating a threat and the damage that an exploit could cause. Two general approaches used to do this are as follows:

  • Deterministic Analysis: For an exploit to be successful, all prior steps in the exploit must also be successful. The cybersecurity analyst knows the steps for a successful exploit.
  • Probabilistic Analysis: Statistical techniques are used to determine the probability that a successful exploit will occur based on the likelihood that each step in the exploit will succeed.

50. Match the security policy with the description.
Network Defense (NetDef) Course Final Exam Answers 1

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

identifies network applications and uses that are acceptable to the organization acceptable use policy (AUP)
identifies how remote users can access a network and what is accessible via remote connectivity remote access policy
specifies authorized persons that can have access to network resources and identity verification procedures identification and authentication policy
specifies network device operating systems and end user application update procedures network maintenance policy

51. What are two physical security precautions that a business can take to protect its computers and systems? (Choose two.)

  • Replace software firewalls with hardware firewalls.
  • Perform daily data backups.
  • Ensure that all operating system and antivirus software is up to date.
  • Lock doors to telecommunications rooms.
  • Implement biometric authentication.

Explanation: Firewalls (software and hardware), up to date software, and backing up data are all security measures designed to protect data. However, these are not physical security precautions. Physical security precautions prevent theft, damage, or unauthorized access to physical computer equipment.

52. Which hashing technology requires keys to be exchanged?

  • salting
  • AES
  • MD5
  • HMAC

Explanation: The difference between HMAC and hashing is the use of keys.

53. The IT department is tasked to implement a system that controls what a user can and cannot do on the corporate network. Which process should be implemented to meet the requirement?

  • a set of attributes that describes user access rights
  • observations to be provided to all employees
  • a biometric fingerprint reader
  • user login auditing

Explanation: Access control prevents unauthorized user from gaining access to sensitive data and networked systems. There are several technologies used to implement effective access control strategies.

54. Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

  • any
  • gt
  • some
  • all
  • host
  • most

Explanation: The host keyword is used when using a specific device IP address in an ACL. For example, the deny host 192.168.5.5 command is the same is the deny 192.168.5.5 0.0.0.0 command. The any keyword is used to allow any mask through that meets the criteria. For example, the permit any command is the same as permit 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 command.

55. What is the function of the pass action on a Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall?

  • tracking the state of connections between zones
  • inspecting traffic between zones for traffic control
  • logging of rejected or dropped packets
  • forwarding traffic from one zone to another

Explanation: The pass action performed by Cisco IOS ZPF permits forwarding of traffic in a manner similar to the permit statement in an access control list.

56. Which statement describes the threat to a public cloud due to a poor cloud security architecture strategy?

  • when a cloud customer does not have full visibility into the cloud services
  • when user accounts or access privileges are not properly secured and are hijacked by threat actors
  • when a cloud customer employee, contractor, or business partner maliciously or unintentionally compromise the cloud service
  • when the shared security responsibilities between a cloud customer and cloud provider are not implemented correctly

Explanation: There are many threats associated with cloud computing including:

  • inside threat – occurs when a cloud customer employee, contractor, or business partner maliciously or unintentionally compromise the cloud service.
  • compromised account credentials – occurs when user accounts or access privileges are not properly secured and are hijacked by threat actors.
  • cloud misconfiguration – occurs when the cloud computing resource is set up incorrectly making it vulnerable to attacks.
  • poor cloud security architecture strategy – when the shared security responsibilities between a cloud customer and cloud provider are not implemented correctly.

57. A company is developing a security policy for secure communication. In the exchange of critical messages between a headquarters office and a branch office, a hash value should only be recalculated with a predetermined code, thus ensuring the validity of data source. Which aspect of secure communications is addressed?

  • origin authentication
  • data integrity
  • non-repudiation
  • data confidentiality

Explanation: Secure communications consists of four elements:

  • Data confidentiality – guarantees that only authorized users can read the message
  • Data integrity – guarantees that the message was not altered
  • Origin authentication – guarantees that the message is not a forgery and does actually come from whom it states
  • Data nonrepudiation – guarantees that the sender cannot repudiate, or refute, the validity of a message sent

58. Which Windows log contains information about installations of software, including Windows updates?

  • security logs
  • application logs
  • setup logs
  • system logs

Explanation: On a Windows host, setup logs record information about the installation of software, including Windows updates.

59. For network systems, which management system addresses the inventory and control of hardware and software configurations?

  • vulnerability management
  • risk management
  • asset management
  • configuration management

Explanation: Configuration management addresses the inventory and control of hardware and software configurations of network systems.

60. What are two uses of an access control list? (Choose two.)

  • ACLs can permit or deny traffic based upon the MAC address originating on the router.
  • Standard ACLs can restrict access to specific applications and ports.
  • ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.
  • ACLs assist the router in determining the best path to a destination.
  • ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.

Explanation: – Limit network traffic in order to provide adequate network performance
– Restrict the delivery of routing updates
– Provide a basic level of security
– Filter traffic based on the type of traffic being sent
– Filter traffic based on IP addressing

61. When implementing a ZPF, what is the default security setting when forwarding traffic between two interfaces in the same zone?

  • Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is not subject to any policy and passes freely.
  • Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is blocked.
  • Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is selectively forwarded based on Layer 3 information.
  • Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is selectively forwarded based on the default policy restrictions.

Explanation: A zone-based policy firewall uses the concept of zones to specify where firewall rules and policies should be applied. By default, the traffic between interfaces that exist in the same zone is not subject to any policy and passes freely.

62. You have been asked to implement a data integrity program to protect data files that need to be electronically downloaded by the sales staff. You have decided to use the strongest hashing algorithm available on your systems. Which hash algorithm would you select?

  • AES
  • SHA-1
  • SHA-256
  • MD5

Explanation: MD5 and SHA are the two most popular hashing algorithms. SHA-256 uses a 256-bit hash, whereas MD5 produces a 128-bit hash value.

63. What is the purpose of a digital certificate?

  • It authenticates a website and establishes a secure connection to exchange confidential data.
  • It guarantees that a website has not been hacked.
  • It ensures that the person who is gaining access to a network device is authorized.
  • It provides proof that data has a traditional signature attached.

Explanation: Digital signatures commonly use digital certificates that are used to verify the identity of the originator in order to authenticate a vendor website and establish an encrypted connection to exchange confidential data. One such example is when a person logs into a financial institution from a web browser.

64. Which network logs contain information that a security analyst can use to determine if packets received from the web are in response to legitimate requests or are part of an exploit?

  • NetFlow logs
  • content filter logs
  • NBAR logs
  • proxy logs

65. Why can ACLs give a false sense of security if overly relied upon as a network security technology?

  • ACLs can be applied to network interfaces in one direction only.
  • ACLs only log denied traffic, not permitted traffic.
  • Packets are permitted by default when ACL statements don’t match.
  • Attackers can determine which IP addresses, protocols, and ports are allowed by ACLs.

66. Why must a network administrator consider more security features in addition to firewalls to achieve the best possible network security?

  • Experienced firewall specialists may not always be available, requiring the deployment of less complex security technologies.
  • Firewalls are expensive to implement, given that there are less expensive security technologies.
  • Firewall configuration often takes too much time, and network technicians are more effective if deployed in other security areas.
  • Firewalls typically do not stop intrusions from hosts within a network or zone.

67. What is one of the first actions performed on Internet-connected smart devices before being put into service?

  • Connect the device to the network and download firmware updates.
  • Change the default administrator credentials.
  • Install the device in a physically secure environment.
  • Configure the device to communicate with a central server

68. What is an example of transaction data recorded by a network security monitoring tool?

  • source and destination port numbers of two network endpoints
  • requests and replies between the two network endpoints
  • source and destination IP addresses of two network endpoints
  • the IP code for the protocol in use

Explanation: The transactions that represent the requests and replies would be logged in an access log on the server or by a NIDS like Zeek.

69. Which two statements describe the effects of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.31? (Choose two.)

  • The first 27 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
  • The first 31 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
  • The last 5 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
  • The last 5 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
  • The last 27 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
  • The first 31 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

Explanation: Unlike a subnet mask, in which binary 1 is equal to a match and binary 0 is not a match, in a wildcard mask, the reverse is true.

70. A cybersecurity analyst is going to verify security alerts using the Security Onion. Which tool should the analyst visit first?

  • Bro
  • ELK
  • CapME
  • Sguil

Explanation: The primary duty of a cybersecurity analyst is the verification of security alerts. In the Security Onion, the first place that a cybersecurity analyst will go to verify alerts is Sguil because it provides a high-level console for investigating security alerts from a wide variety of sources.

71. Which term describes the ability of a web server to keep a log of the users who access the server, as well as the length of time they use it?

  • assigning permissions
  • authentication
  • accounting
  • authorization

Explanation: Accounting records what users do and when they do it, including what is accessed, the amount of time the resource is accessed, and any changes that were made. Accounting keeps track of how network resources are used.


72. An investigator finds a USB drive at a crime scene and wants to present it as evidence in court. The investigator takes the USB drive and creates a forensic image of it and takes a hash of both the original USB device and the image that was created. What is the investigator attempting to prove about the USB drive when the evidence is submitted in court?

  • The data is all there.
  • An exact copy cannot be made of a device.
  • The investigator found a USB drive and was able to make a copy of it.
  • The data in the image is an exact copy and nothing has been altered by the process.

Explanation: A hash function ensures the integrity of a program, file, or device.


73. Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst is reviewing an alert message generated by Snort. What does the number 2100498 in the message indicate?
Network Defense (NetDef) Course Final Exam Answers 2

  • the message length in bits
  • the Snort rule that is triggered
  • the session number of the message
  • the id of the user that triggers the alert

Explanation: The sid field in a Snort alert message indicates the Snort security rule that is triggered.


74. What does it indicate if the timestamp in the HEADER section of a syslog message is preceded by a period or asterisk symbol?

  • The timestamp represents the round trip duration value.
  • The syslog message indicates the time an email is received.
  • The syslog message should be treated with high priority.
  • There is a problem associated with NTP.

Explanation: The HEADER section of the message contains the timestamp. If the timestamp is preceded by the period (.) or asterisk (*) symbols, a problem is indicated with NTP.

75. A SOHO office is using a public cloud provider to host their website. The IT technician is choosing an approach to protect transaction data between the website and visitors from the internet. Which type of encryption key management method should the technician choose?

  • public key encryption
  • private key encryption
  • secret key encryption
  • shared-secret key encryption

Explanation: The two classes of encryption approaches are symmetric and asymmetric encryption. Symmetric encryption algorithms use the same key, called pre-shared key or shared-secret key, to encrypt and decrypt data. Asymmetric encryption algorithms use one key to encrypt data and a different key to decrypt data. One key is public and the other is private. Asymmetric encryption is also called public key encryption. In this scenario, web visitors are unknown therefore public key encryption should be used.

76. What are two benefits offered by a zone-based policy firewall on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

  • Any interface can be configured with both a ZPF and an IOS Classic Firewall.
  • Policies are applied to unidirectional traffic between zones.
  • Virtual and physical interfaces are put in different zones to enhance security.
  • Policies are defined exclusively with ACLs.
  • Policies provide scalability because they are easy to read and troubleshoot.

Explanation: There are several benefits of a ZPF:
– It is not dependent on ACLs.
– The router security posture is to block unless explicitly allowed.
– Policies are easy to read and troubleshoot. This provides scalability because one policy affects any given traffic, instead of needing multiple ACLs and inspection actions for different types of traffic.
– Virtual and physical interfaces can be grouped into zones.
– Policies are applied to unidirectional traffic between zones.
Both IOS Classic Firewalls and ZPFs can be enabled concurrently on a Cisco router. However, the models cannot be combined on a single interface.

77. Why could network Syslog servers be a target for threat actors?

  • Syslog servers are usually not installed behind a firewall.
  • Syslog servers contain configurations and passwords for all devices on the network.
  • Syslog data could be encrypted by the attacker and used as ransomware.
  • Syslog servers could contain information that could lead to the detection of an exploit by a hacker.

78. What effect does the use of hashing have on stored passwords?

  • Less digital storage is required for user credentials that include hashed passwords.
  • Enforces the use of complex passwords.
  • The recovery of forgotten passwords is faster.
  • The password cannot be restored from the stored unique hash.

Explanation: Nobody can reverse a digital hash to discover the original input. If the input changes at all, it results in a different hash. The system never writes the user’s password to the hard drive, it only stores the digital hash. This way, the password is truly only known to the user who set it.

79. What is used by an application layer gateway to connect to remote servers on behalf of clients?

  • packet filter
  • stateful firewall
  • intrusion detection system
  • proxy server

Explanation: When a client needs to access a remote server, it connects to a proxy server. The proxy server connects to the remote server on behalf of the client. Therefore, the server only sees a connection from the proxy server.

80. Which component of the zero trust security model focuses on secure access when an API, a microservice, or a container is accessing a database within an application?

  • workplace
  • workload
  • workflow
  • workforce

Explanation: The workload pillar focuses on applications that are running in the cloud, in data centers, and other virtualized environments that interact with one another. It focuses on secure access when an API, a microservice, or a container is accessing a database within an application.

81. Match the security concept to the description.
Network Defense (NetDef) Course Final Exam Answers 3

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

the likelihood of undesireable consequences risk
a mechanism used to compromise an asset exploit
a weakness in a system vulnerability
a potential danger to an asset threat

82. Place the steps for configuring zone-based policy (ZPF) firewalls in order from first to last.
Network Defense (NetDef) Course Final Exam Answers 4

Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

Apply policies. 4th
Assign zones to interfaces. 5th
Create policies. 3rd
Create zones. 1st
Define traffic classes. 2nd

83. In a hierarchical CA topology, where can a subordinate CA obtain a certificate for itself?

  • from the root CA or another subordinate CA at the same level
  • from the root CA or another subordinate CA at a higher level
  • from the root CA or from self-generation
  • from the root CA only
  • from the root CA or another subordinate CA anywhere in the tree

Explanation: In a hierarchical CA topology, CAs can issue certificates to end users and to subordinate CAs, which in turn issue their certificates to end users, other lower level CAs, or both. In this way, a tree of CAs and end users is built in which every CA can issue certificates to lower level CAs and end users. Only the root CA can issue a self-signing certificate in a hierarchical CA topology.

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snz
snz
6 months ago

Which network logs contain information that a security analyst can use to determine if packets received from the web are in response to legitimate requests or are part of an exploit?

NetFlow logs

content filter logs

NBAR logs

proxy logs

snz
snz
6 months ago

Why can ACLs give a false sense of security if overly relied upon as a network security technology?

ACLs can be applied to network interfaces in one direction only.

ACLs only log denied traffic, not permitted traffic.

Packets are permitted by default when ACL statements don’t match.

Attackers can determine which IP addresses, protocols, and ports are allowed by ACLs.

snz
snz
6 months ago

Why must a network administrator consider more security features in addition to firewalls to achieve the best possible network security?

Experienced firewall specialists may not always be available, requiring the deployment of less complex security technologies.

Firewalls are expensive to implement, given that there are less expensive security technologies.

Firewall configuration often takes too much time, and network technicians are more effective if deployed in other security areas.

Firewalls typically do not stop intrusions from hosts within a network or zone.

snz
snz
6 months ago

What is one of the first actions performed on Internet-connected smart devices before being put into service?

Connect the device to the network and download firmware updates.

Change the default administrator credentials.

Install the device in a physically secure environment.

Configure the device to communicate with a central server

snz
snz
6 months ago

What is an example of transaction data recorded by a network security monitoring tool?

source and destination port numbers of two network endpoints

requests and replies between the two network endpoints

source and destination IP addresses of two network endpoints

the IP code for the protocol in use

snz
snz
6 months ago

Which two statements describe the effects of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.31? (Choose two.)

The first 27 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

The first 31 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

The last 5 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

The last 5 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

The last 27 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

The first 31 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

snz
snz
6 months ago

Which statement describes the threat to a public cloud due to a poor cloud security architecture strategy?

when a cloud customer employee, contractor, or business partner maliciously or unintentionally compromise the cloud service

when the shared security responsibilities between a cloud customer and cloud provider are not implemented correctly

when user accounts or access privileges are not properly secured and are hijacked by threat actors

when a cloud customer does not have full visibility into the cloud services

snz
snz
6 months ago

When implementing components into an enterprise network, what is the purpose of a firewall?

A firewall is a system that inspects network traffic and makes forwarding decisions based solely on Layer 2 Ethernet MAC addresses.

A firewall is a system that enforces an access control policy between internal corporate networks and external networks.

A firewall is a system that stores vast quantities of sensitive and business-critical information.

A firewall is a system that is designed to secure, monitor, and manage mobile devices, including corporate-owned devices and employee-owned devices.

snz
snz
6 months ago

What is a characteristic of a probabilistic analysis in an alert evaluation?

random variables that create difficulty in knowing the outcome of any given event with certainty

analysis of applications that conform to application/networking standards

precise methods that yield the same result every time by relying on predefined conditions

each event an inevitable result of antecedent causes

snz
snz
6 months ago

A cybersecurity analyst is going to verify security alerts using the Security Onion. Which tool should the analyst visit first?

Bro

ELK

CapME

Sguil

snz
snz
6 months ago

Which term describes the ability of a web server to keep a log of the users who access the server, as well as the length of time they use it?

assigning permissions

authentication

accounting

authorization

snz
snz
6 months ago

Which hashing technology requires keys to be exchanged?

salting

MD5

AES

HMAC

snz
snz
6 months ago

An investigator finds a USB drive at a crime scene and wants to present it as evidence in court. The investigator takes the USB drive and creates a forensic image of it and takes a hash of both the original USB device and the image that was created. What is the investigator attempting to prove about the USB drive when the evidence is submitted in court?

The data is all there.

An exact copy cannot be made of a device.

The investigator found a USB drive and was able to make a copy of it.

The data in the image is an exact copy and nothing has been altered by the process.

snz
snz
6 months ago

Which ICMP message type should be stopped inbound?

echo

echo-reply

source quench

unreachable

snz
snz
6 months ago

To facilitate the troubleshooting process, which inbound ICMP message should be permitted on an outside interface?

router advertisement

echo request

time-stamp reply

echo reply

time-stamp request

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst is reviewing an alert message generated by Snort. What does the number 2100498 in the message indicate?

the message length in bits
*** the Snort rule that is triggered
the session number of the message
the id of the user that triggers the alert

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

What does it indicate if the timestamp in the HEADER section of a syslog message is preceded by a period or asterisk symbol?

The timestamp represents the round trip duration value.
The syslog message indicates the time an email is received.
The syslog message should be treated with high priority.
*** There is a problem associated with NTP.

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

What are two elements that form the PRI value in a syslog message? (Choose two.)

header
hostname
*** severity
timestamp
*** facility

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

What is the purpose of a digital certificate?

It guarantees that a website has not been hacked.
*** It authenticates a website and establishes a secure connection to exchange confidential data.
It ensures that the person who is gaining access to a network device is authorized.
It provides proof that data has a traditional signature attached.

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

A SOHO office is using a public cloud provider to host their website. The IT technician is choosing an approach to protect transaction data between the website and visitors from the internet. Which type of encryption key management method should the technician choose?

*** public key encryption
private key encryption
secret key encryption
shared-secret key encryption

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

What is the function of the pass action on a Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall?

*** forwarding traffic from one zone to another
tracking the state of connections between zones
logging of rejected or dropped packets
inspecting traffic between zones for traffic control

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

What are two benefits offered by a zone-based policy firewall on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

Any interface can be configured with both a ZPF and an IOS Classic Firewall.
*** Policies are applied to unidirectional traffic between zones.
Virtual and physical interfaces are put in different zones to enhance security.
Policies are defined exclusively with ACLs.
*** Policies provide scalability because they are easy to read and troubleshoot.

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

When implementing components into an enterprise network, what is the purpose of a firewall?

*** A firewall is a system that enforces an access control policy between internal corporate networks and external networks.
A firewall is a system that is designed to secure, monitor, and manage mobile devices, including corporate-owned devices and employee-owned devices.
A firewall is a system that stores vast quantities of sensitive and business-critical information.
A firewall is a system that inspects network traffic and makes forwarding decisions based solely on Layer 2 Ethernet MAC addresses.

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

When implementing a ZPF, what is the default security setting when forwarding traffic between two interfaces in the same zone?

Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is selectively forwarded based on the default policy restrictions.
*** Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is not subject to any policy and passes freely.
Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is blocked.
Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is selectively forwarded based on Layer 3 information.

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

Which two statements describe the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)

The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
The first 32 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
*** The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
The last five bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
*** The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

To facilitate the troubleshooting process, which inbound ICMP message should be permitted on an outside interface?

*** echo reply
echo request
time-stamp request
router advertisement
time-stamp reply

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

Which term describes the ability of a web server to keep a log of the users who access the server, as well as the length of time they use it?

authentication
assigning permissions
*** accounting
authorization

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

The IT department is tasked to implement a system that controls what a user can and cannot do on the corporate network. Which process should be implemented to meet the requirement?

*** a set of attributes that describes user access rights
a biometric fingerprint reader
user login auditing
observations to be provided to all employees

sc4nn3r
sc4nn3r
6 months ago

An investigator finds a USB drive at a crime scene and wants to present it as evidence in court. The investigator takes the USB drive and creates a forensic image of it and takes a hash of both the original USB device and the image that was created. What is the investigator attempting to prove about the USB drive when the evidence is submitted in court?

The data is all there.
*** The data in the image is an exact copy and nothing has been altered by the process.
The investigator found a USB drive and was able to make a copy of it.
An exact copy cannot be made of a device.

Mark
Mark
7 months ago

What is one of the first actions performed on Internet-connected smart devices before being put into service?

Configure the device to communicate with a central server.

Install the device in a physically secure environment.

Connect the device to the network and download firmware updates.

Change the default administrator credentials.

Mark
Mark
7 months ago

Why could network Syslog servers be a target for threat actors?

Syslog servers are usually not installed behind a firewall.

Syslog servers contain configurations and passwords for all devices on the network.

Syslog data could be encrypted by the attacker and used as ransomware.

Syslog servers could contain information that could lead to the detection of an exploit by a hacker.

Mark
Mark
7 months ago

What is an example of transaction data recorded by a network security monitoring tool?

source and destination IP addresses of two network endpoints

requests and replies between the two network endpoints

the IP code for the protocol in use

source and destination port numbers of two network endpoints

Mark
Mark
7 months ago

What effect does the use of hashing have on stored passwords?

Less digital storage is required for user credentials that include hashed passwords.

Enforces the use of complex passwords.

The recovery of forgotten passwords is faster.

The password cannot be restored from the stored unique hash.

Mark
Mark
7 months ago

What is used by an application layer gateway to connect to remote servers on behalf of clients?

packet filter

stateful firewall

intrusion detection system

proxy server

Mark
Mark
7 months ago

Which two statements describe the effects of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.31? (Choose two.)

The last 27 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

The last 5 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

The first 31 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

The first 27 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

The first 31 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

The last 5 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

Mark
Mark
7 months ago

A SOHO office is using a public cloud provider to host their website. The IT technician is choosing an approach to protect transaction data between the website and visitors from the internet. Which type of encryption key management method should the technician choose?

shared-secret key encryption

secret key encryption

public key encryption

private key encryption

Mark
Mark
7 months ago

When implementing a ZPF, what is the default security setting when forwarding traffic between two interfaces in the same zone?

Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is blocked.

Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is not subject to any policy and passes freely.

Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is selectively forwarded based on Layer 3 information.

Traffic between interfaces in the same zone is selectively forwarded based on the default policy restrictions.

Mark
Mark
7 months ago

Which component of the zero trust security model focuses on secure access when an API, a microservice, or a container is accessing a database within an application?

workplace

workload

workflow

workforce

Mark
Mark
7 months ago

What is a characteristic of a probabilistic analysis in an alert evaluation?

random variables that create difficulty in knowing the outcome of any given event with certainty

each event an inevitable result of antecedent causes

precise methods that yield the same result every time by relying on predefined conditions

analysis of applications that conform to application/networking standards

Mark
Mark
7 months ago

What is the function of the pass action on a Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall?

tracking the state of connections between zones

logging of rejected or dropped packets

forwarding traffic from one zone to another

inspecting traffic between zones for traffic control

habwfui
habwfui
8 months ago

A company is deploying a customer service web application on AWS. A network administrator is installing and configuring a VM instance. Which three actions should the administrator take to protect the VM? (Choose three.)

  • Disable unneeded ports and services.
  • Enforce account management policies.
  • Configure RAID to ensure storage fault tolerance.
  • Plan subnet placement.
  • Deploy an advanced firewall appliance.
  • Install an IPS appliance in the VM.
habwfui
habwfui
8 months ago

Which three security services are provided by digital signatures? (Choose three.)

  • authenticates the source
  • guarantees data has not changed in transit
  • provides data encryption
  • provides nonrepudiation using HMAC functions
  • provides confidentiality of digitally signed data
  • authenticates the destinationn
A Zulu
A Zulu
10 months ago

A network administrator is setting up a web server for a small advertising office and is concerned with data availability. The administrator wishes to implement disk fault tolerance using the minimum number of disks required. Which RAID level should the administrator choose?

RAID 1

RAID 0

RAID 5

RAID 6