CCNA 2 v6.0 (Routing & Switching Essentials v6) Chapter 5: Switch Configuration: Check Your Understanding Questions Answers
1. Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?
- Fa0/0
- Fa0/1
- Interface connected to the default gateway
- VLAN 1
- VLAN 99
2. A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
- A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
- POST occurred normally.
- The boot process was interrupted.
- There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
- The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.
3. Which two statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet?
(Choose two.)
- Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.
- Latency is reduced because the NIC processes frames faster.
- Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data flow.
- Performance is improved because the NIC is able to detect collisions.
- Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.
4. Which statement describes the port speed LED on the Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch?
- If the LED is amber, the port is operating at 1000 Mb/s.
- If the LED is blinking green, the port is operating at 10 Mb/s.
- If the LED is green, the port is operating at 100 Mb/s.
- If the LED is off, the port is not operating.
5. What is a function of the switch boot loader?
- To control how much RAM is available to the switch during the boot process
- To provide an environment to operate in when the switch operating system cannot be found
- To provide security for the vulnerable state when the switch is booting
- To speed up the boot process
6. In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces command?
- To determine whether remote access is enabled
- To determine the MAC address of a directly attached network device on a particular interface
- When packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host
- When an end device can reach local devices, but not remote devices
7. What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH to connect to a network device for management purposes?
- Telnet does not provide authentication, whereas SSH does.
- Telnet sends a username and password in plain text, whereas SSH encrypts the username and password.
- Telnet supports a host GUI, whereas SSH only supports a host CLI.
- Telnet uses UDP as the transport protocol, whereas SSH uses TCP.
8. Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?
- Clear the MAC address table on the switch.
- Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.
- Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.
- Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.
9. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
- After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
- Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
- If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.
- The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
- The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to reenable ports.
10. A network administrator configures the port-security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?
- Protect
- Restrict
- Shutdown
- Warning